bd71 Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 Had two of these today...first the easier one. [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skxhaqjxxxxxdcxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP1N - ?[/hv] Questions: 1. Which transfer to use? After Jacoby tx, I wasn't sure what my diamond void/control-showing options would be in standard bidding since we had no special gadgets. So I chose Texas tx followed by 5D, which partner understood as control-showing.2. After the transfer, is there any standard method to discover that pd has a club control below 5H? (We had no special gadgets, splinter or otherwise, agreed.)3. (Related to #2) Any reason not to decide immediately that we should be in 6♥ minimum? Now the harder one: [hv=d=n&v=n&s=skxhaqjxxxxxdcxxx]133|100|Scoring: MP1N - ?[/hv] With no minor-suit transfers in your arsenal or other gadgets, is there any way to intelligently explore slam here? I punted 3N...comments? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 Both of these hands are pretty much impossible without agreements. I'd suggest just learning a "standard" structure of responses to 1NT with your regular partner. You could for example study bridge world standard. It may not be best but at least you have something. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
karlson Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 I do think the first one is an interesting evaluation problem playing standard methods. I guess I would transfer, splinter 4d, and pass 4h, but I'd be feeling awfully chickenish about it. On the second one, decent methods will either let you show a game force with 6+ clubs and let partner show his stoppers/controls, or (even better) let you show a game force with 6+ clubs with diamond shortness. Barring that, of course 3n. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 Hi, #1 One possible option is to bid 2D, followed by a 4D splinter bid. Your auction is also ok, since 5D will show a 1st round control, denying controls in spades and clubs.#2 Playing standard, you could bid 3C, which is forcing, opener with 3 card support and a control rich hand, will make a move, the harder part will be the 3 card support. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pirate22 Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 Rose Petal glasses-------First hand bid 2d transfer after pards 2hts {assuming opps do not bid} hit grandma over the head with 4n/t ask ace's.pard must have something in clubs--whater then close out at 6 hts. Second hand suppose 3cl is a starter,if pard signs off in 3 n/t ---pass.one has to have widgets to handle these types of hands.best of luck in future endeavours Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
manudude03 Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 1. 2D, 4D, respect a signoff. 2. 2S, 3NT (3D if it shows shortness). ps. pirate22, 2D followed by 4NT is usually played as quantitative... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 I would have just punted 3N on the second hand, even with a method to show GF with clubs and short dias Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.