Where would you rather be?

[Elianna]

[hv=n=saj43h2dakq2caj54&s=sqt9ha6543d87ct92]133|200|Your options are 1S by North or 2NT by North.[/hv]

[mike777]

No

 

 

Always have the option ...no

--------------

 

 

Guys you must must Know.........you always have the option NOOOOOOOOO

[JLOGIC]

I'd definitely prefer 1S myself.

[Fluffy]

1♠ seems to score better. I'd always play 2NT though, 1♠ is forcing for me

[JLOGIC]

1♠ seems to score better. I'd always play 2NT though, 1♠ is forcing for me

I guess I'm strange, playing 3N with 25 HCP and good honors/spot cards seems pretty normal!

[bluecalm]

1♠ is forcing for me

 

I wouldn't pass S hand after 1♠ but playing 1♠ is as forcing doesn't make sense.

Afterall opener is limited in strength and ♠ length and responder could be very weak.

For example with:

 

9xx

KJ7xx

xxxx

x

 

Why don't just pass 1♠ ?

 

On actual hand i prefer to be in 1♠ given the choice but I don't see how I would stop short of 3NT in real bridge. Even playing "standard" it would go:

 

1♦ - 1♥

1♠ - 1NT

3NT

[mcphee]

1S might be F for you but it isn't unless you have an agreement. As 1S for most is NF I would pass the S hand at pairs.

[hanp]

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.

[gnasher]

I wouldn't pass S hand after 1♠ but playing 1♠ is as forcing doesn't make sense.

Afterall opener is limited in strength and ♠ length and responder could be very weak.

I think you'll find that people who play 1♠ as forcing do so because in their methods 1♠ is unlimited.

[Hanoi5]

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

 

I'm sure OP is asking because the bidding went either:

 

1♦-1♥

1♠-Pass

 

or

 

1♦-1♥

2NT-Pass

 

And partner would have preferred the other auction.

[gnasher]

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

On a non-trump lead, I play four rounds of diamonds throwing a club, then I crossruff.

 

On a trump lead, I try to do something with the clubs.

[pooltuna]

I'd definitely prefer 1S myself.

maybe. But your partner's Meckwellian tendencies will take over at vul IMPS and you will have to play 3NT :D

[pooltuna]

There are eight tricks in NT unless hearts are worse than 5-2. You'd need 9 tricks to beat that in Spades, how do you propose to get them?

 

I'm sure OP is asking because the bidding went either:

 

1♦-1♥

1♠-Pass

 

or

 

1♦-1♥

2NT-Pass

 

And partner would have preferred the other auction.

actually I was envisioning an auction more like

1♦ 1♥

1♠ 1NT

2NT

[Fluffy]

Afterall opener is NOT limited in strength

FYP ;)

 

you can play as you want, but let me play the way I want to hehe.

[dkharty]

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.

Han is never afraid to swim against the current.

[pooltuna]

Agree that 1S is forcing if that is your agreement and NF if that is your agreement.

Han is never afraid to swim against the current.

on the beach he charges the tsunamis ;)

[bluecalm]

I think you'll find that people who play 1♠ as forcing do so because in their methods 1♠ is unlimited.

 

FYP

 

you can play as you want, but let me play the way I want to hehe.

 

Do you guys play polish club or some sort of strong diamond or club ?

Opening 1m is limited to about 22hcp. Then if you bid 1♠ you are still limited to that (in standard you shouldn't be at the top of this range but let assume we play it that way).

I still can have a hand I want to pass opposite this assuming GF hands open 2♣ or something.

You can agree that 1♠ is bid with every hand with 4♠ but still if you don't play forcing 1m openers it doesn't make sense to play it forcing here.

 

Wouldn't you pass with:

 

xxx

KJxxx

xxxx

x

 

?

[aguahombre]

Yeh, 1♠ rebid forcing ---If this big, it is either balanced or exactly 4-1-4-4. A biggie otherwise unbalanced with longer diamonds would have rebid 2♠.

 

Bluecalm's XXX KJXXX XXXX X would rebid 2D after responding 1H. Any hand tempted to pass a 1S rebid would not respond 1♥.

[ahydra]

Well if I absolutely have to play 1♠ or 2NT then I'll play 2NT. But how do you get to either of those?! I'd open the North hand 2NT (as I play 19-20). OK, so suppose we play 20-22 instead and don't feel like upgrading, so open 1♦, then South bids 1♥ and we rebid 2NT 18-19, then we may end up in 2NT if south doesn't raise (though one would hope he does, particularly at teams).

 

If we don't feel like doing that we bid 2S instead surely to show the extra strength and then south is bidding 3NT?

 

ahydra

[gnasher]

Wouldn't you pass with:

 

xxx

KJxxx

xxxx

x

After 1♦-1♥;1♠? No, I'd bid 2♦, regardless of whether 1♠ was forcing.

 

After 1♣-1♥;1♠, I'd pass even if playing 1♠ as forcing. I've passed forcing bids before.

[kenrexford]

1♠ seems obvious. If I have to play in a partscore, I play in the partscore that probably takes the most tricks AND that is most likely the best contract when the obvious field contract will fail.

[Bbradley62]

I'd open the North hand 2NT (as I play 19-20).

with a small singleton?

[Elianna]

My new partner is from a different country than me, and they definitely have different styles that she thinks is the only way to play. It gets rather frustrating, as she thinks that she is educating me about bridge, and I think that she is informing me about the style typical in her area of the world.

 

So the auction 1D-1H came up during bidding practice, and she asks me if 2NT denies 4H for me. I say of course, but that I'd also prefer it to deny 4S (I know that this is not STANDARD in the US, but it is my preference). She thought that this was really bad, because for her, the auction 1D-1H-1S is at most 16 points, and I thought that it is at most 19 points.

 

So we then moved on to the tangent of what hands would actually pass 1S by her. I told her only hands that would pass 2NT, that have exactly three spades.

 

After going around and around on the same subject for 15 minutes, saying the same thing, I told her to make her second bid and I would pass whatever she bid (not that I necessarily would with this hand, I just was tired). She bid 2NT, and I passed, and then we debated about which contract we would rather be in only considering our two hands.

 

We disagreed on that, too, and I was just curious what other people thought, analysing the hands.

 

The full layout on our bidding practice was something like:

[hv=n=saj43h2dakq2caj54&w=sk8hkjt98dj3cq763&e=s7652hq7dt9654ck8&s=sqt9ha6543d87ct92]399|300|[/hv]

[bluecalm]

Bluecalm's XXX KJXXX XXXX X would rebid 2D after responding 1H. Any hand tempted to pass a 1S rebid would not respond 1♥.

 

This hand is for 1♣ opener. Make it: xxx KJxxx x xxxx for 1♦.

I hope you don't want to pass 1m opening with that ? :)

 

She thought that this was really bad, because for her, the auction 1D-1H-1S is at most 16 points, and I thought that it is at most 19 points.

 

16 and 19 sounds like random figures to me.

If you say "16" what do you do with:

KJxx A KJx AKxxx ?

 

If you say "19" what do you do with:

 

AKxx x AKxx KQJx ? or add another J somewhere.

[the hog]

Interesting. Most people i know play 1X 1Y 1Z as 100% forcing.