shyams Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 IMPs favourableIn 4th seat, you hold: ♠Q84 ♥A ♦A96542 ♣J83 a. Partner opens 1♥. Would you respond 2♦, 1NT or somethng else with this hand? b. If the bidding went: 1♥ - 2♦; 3♦ - ???. What now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 No, I would bid NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 This is routine. 2/1=GF; I don't have a GF. Therefore, no 2/1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shevek Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 If I chose 2♦, then probably gamble 3NT over 3♦. While it's true partner might have a stiff club for -50 with 6♦ cold, the alternative of 3♠ - 4♦ (with ♣Qx or xxx) is likely to send us minus. Not sure. Anyway, a big issue with 2/1 is the need to make early decisions. 1NT is clear enough with your hand but what about this: ♠53 ♥AQ765 ♦KQ87 ♣74 1♠ - ? A decent guideline is to bid 2/1 on a hand you would open. This is a 1♥ opening so 2♥ now. That could lead to a silly 3NT but 1♠ 1N2♠/♣ ? is no fun either. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 A decent guideline is to bid 2/1 on a hand you would open. No. There are many hands we would open, which are not suitable for 2/1 game force, because partner would open them also. This is one of them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 This just looks like 1NTF followed by inviting in ♦ to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BudH Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 IMPs favourableIn 4th seat, you hold: ♠Q84 ♥A ♦A96542 ♣J83 a. Partner opens 1♥. Would you respond 2♦, 1NT or somethng else with this hand? b. If the bidding went: 1♥ - 2♦; 3♦ - ???. What now?I would bid 3♦, invitational. (Yes, I would rather my diamond suit be better, but if the bidding is 1♥-1NT-2♥-3♦ then it would show a hand clearly weaker than this.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 (edited) IMPs favourableIn 4th seat, you hold: ♠Q84 ♥A ♦A96542 ♣J83 a. Partner opens 1♥. Would you respond 2♦, 1NT or somethng else with this hand? b. If the bidding went: 1♥ - 2♦; 3♦ - ???. What now?I would bid 3♦, invitational. (Yes, I would rather my diamond suit be better, but if the bidding is 1♥-1NT-2♥-3♦ then it would show a hand clearly weaker than this.) Unless your agreements are exactly the reverse. I never understood the logic of giving the opponents room with a weak hand and preempting partner with invitational + values. Only exception: 1D-3C, because of no forcing notrump. Edited September 4, 2010 by aguahombre Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 4, 2010 Report Share Posted September 4, 2010 IMPs favourableIn 4th seat, you hold: ♠Q84 ♥A ♦A96542 ♣J83 a. Partner opens 1♥. Would you respond 2♦, 1NT or somethng else with this hand? b. If the bidding went: 1♥ - 2♦; 3♦ - ???. What now? 1) 1nt.... 2) 2d=gf....think 14+ or m ore often.... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 6, 2010 Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 1. Easy 1NT. It's no a GF, and it's a poor suit. Even when playing "2/1 GF except rebid" or jumps as INV I'd still respond 1NT! 2. 3♠ I guess, hoping partner has enough to bid 3NT or 4♦... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shyams Posted September 6, 2010 Author Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 OK. Here are the two hands:[hv=d=w&v=e&n=s7hkt982dkqjtckq6&s=sq84hada96542cj83]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]At the table, partner held the South hand and chose to bid 2♦. I thought it was a poor choice in theory (I'd have bid 1NT) but 11 tricks are cold in a 5♦ contract. How does one reach 5♦ after a forcing 1NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted September 6, 2010 Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 1H - 1N2D - 2S3C - 3S4D - 5D looks to be one possibility. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 6, 2010 Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 Since opener has ♥ it's very easy imo:1♥ - 1NT2♦ - 2♠!3♣ - 5♦ 2♠ shows a very good ♦ raise, opener just paterns out and shows he has 4♦. That's enough to blast. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 6, 2010 Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 I'd bid 1NT, I think 3D invitational is disgusting. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 6, 2010 Report Share Posted September 6, 2010 Since opener has ♥ it's very easy imo:1♥ - 1NT2♦ - 2♠!3♣ - 5♦ 2♠ shows a very good ♦ raise, opener just paterns out and shows he has 4♦. That's enough to blast. One more try with a jump to 4H over 3C? Opener Might have AKX of clubs instead of KQX. Opener has not limited her hand yet, but you have. Not to worry; hearts are not a possible strain. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 7, 2010 Report Share Posted September 7, 2010 Since opener has ♥ it's very easy imo:1♥ - 1NT2♦ - 2♠!3♣ - 5♦ 2♠ shows a very good ♦ raise, opener just paterns out and shows he has 4♦. That's enough to blast. One more try with a jump to 4H over 3C? Opener Might have AKX of clubs instead of KQX. Opener has not limited her hand yet, but you have. Not to worry; hearts are not a possible strain. It's the Ace, partner won't like ♥KQ if I jump to 4♥... Better 3♥ perhaps, although this might suggest Hx. What will we do if partner bids 4♥? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 7, 2010 Report Share Posted September 7, 2010 I can think of several meanings for the auction 1H - 1NT2D - 2S3D - 4H, but this hand doesn't fit any of them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 I am not sure about 3♦ (if that's an invite). Suit is weak and all but maybe it leads to good things. I will have to think about it. Anyway 1NT looks normal now.As partner's rebid is 2♦ the subsequent bidding should be easy assuming you have semi-standard agreement that 2♠ is strong raise (1♥ 1NT 2♦ 2♠ 3♣ - game).The more problematic would be 1♥ 1NT - 2♥ does everybody agrees that 3♦ isn't weak here ? (I am not 100% sure). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 1♥-1N2♥-3♦ is weak (for me and I think most people). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 1♥-1N2♥-3♦ is weak (for me and I think most people). Yes that's considered weak. After 1♥-1NT-2♥ I'd rebid 2NT. As I said before, the suit is way too crappy to treat it as an invite with a 6 card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 is weak (for me and I think most people). Yes that's considered weak. After 1♥-1NT-2♥ I'd rebid 2NT. As I said before, the suit is way too crappy to treat it as an invite with a 6 card suit. Ok, I like it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petterb Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 This is routine. 2/1=GF; I don't have a GF. Therefore, no 2/1.You seem to interpret the question "Enough for 2/1?" as "Enough for 2/1 GF?". Why? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 This is routine. 2/1=GF; I don't have a GF. Therefore, no 2/1.You seem to interpret the question "Enough for 2/1?" as "Enough for 2/1 GF?". Why? Because otherwise the Title has no meaning. 2D over 1H in a Standard context would not even be questioned, because there is no alternative forcing NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
petterb Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 The question asked in the OP only makes sense if you're playing a system where 2/1 is not GF. Surely no one would consider bidding 2D with that hand if it was GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
junyi_zhu Posted September 10, 2010 Report Share Posted September 10, 2010 IMPs favourableIn 4th seat, you hold: ♠Q84 ♥A ♦A96542 ♣J83 a. Partner opens 1♥. Would you respond 2♦, 1NT or somethng else with this hand? b. If the bidding went: 1♥ - 2♦; 3♦ - ???. What now? It is an 1NT bid. You don't have fit in H so usually you can make low HCP games only when partner has very long H or D fit, in those cases, your would usually find it. It's unlike a hand with some moderate H fit: x Ax AQJxxx xxxx, for this hand, it's probably ok to bid 2D, because you may only need 6 H or some D fit to make low HCP games. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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