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What is it?


peachy

What is 4NT?  

44 members have voted

  1. 1. What is 4NT?

    • Quantitative
      11
    • RKC
      29
    • Reg Blackwood
      0
    • Other
      4


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Auction uncontested:

1D-1H

1S- 4NT

What is 4NT?

 

Thanks for opinions. If you care to explain your vote, I'd be interested.

 

EDIT, after seeing a couple responses:

I should have specified the "RKC" is for spades. It didn't even cross my mind that it could be for hearts even if it might be RKC. But still interested in whatever y'all might say.

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for lol? why?

4th suit forcing then spades agrees spades allowing an easy keycard bid. 4th suit forcing then hearts doesn't agree hearts, it just shows extra length, and you may never get to agree hearts as trumps and then bid keycard (2 3 3 4, or 2 3NT, or 2 3 3 3NT, etc...)

 

It should definitely be keycard for hearts not spades, but of course almost all players will take it as for spades simply because it's the last bid suit so you have to be careful.

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Any suit can be bid and/or raised by 4sf. But if you want to invite quant. for 6 NT, this is impossible after say

1 1

1 2

2

 

So I would take it as invitational to 6 NT.

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for lol? why?

My guess:

 

Even though it is highly unlikely that you will have hand that needs only to check aces, it is still much more likely to have it, when you have long hearts, than when you have uncovered a 4-4 fit in spades.

 

Of course if you play strong-jump-shifts, it's for spades.

 

Edit: But I would prefer Quant.

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I am not an international player, but in Denmark it is farly standard, that if you play weak jump shifts, then:

 

1 - 1

1 - 3 is forcing.

 

Thus 4NT should be free to use as quant. (I would strongly expect the bidder to be 3-4-2-4.)

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Not sure but I don't think it's quantitative. What's the rush when we can bid fourth suit forcing first? If partner bids NT I can invite and if partner doesn't then I can always invite with 4NT later. So jdonn gives a plausible explanation.
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Not sure but I don't think it's quantitative. What's the rush when we can bid fourth suit forcing first? If partner bids NT I can invite and if partner doesn't then I can always invite with 4NT later. So jdonn gives a plausible explanation.

to right-side.

 

not to ask a question if the answer I am not interested in.

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Not sure but I don't think it's quantitative. What's the rush when we can bid fourth suit forcing first? If partner bids NT I can invite and if partner doesn't then I can always invite with 4NT later. So jdonn gives a plausible explanation.

to right-side.

 

not to ask a question if the answer I am not interested in.

If responder has a quantitative notrumpish hand:

 

1) It would be hard to imagine the answer to 4SF would wrong-side, if the answer is descriptive.

2) Since the auction (1D-1H-1S) still leaves opener with a whole lot of different hand patterns and strengths, it would be hard to imagine responder "not being interested" in further clarification before deciding to make a quant bid for NT only.

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I have a 3-4-2-4 17 count, that's (more or less) what 4NT shows.

 

There are positional and non-positional stops. If I have a positional and partner a positional stop, I'd like to bid NT first.

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Over the years we have gained considerably when evaluating for NT level, by knowing that 17+14 =less than 33 --and defending against those who don't.

 

Responder really needs 4SF to find out if he should quant with 17 or 18.

 

Further edit: (hidden)

 

 

Didn't think it necessary to express these obvious points about the jump to 4NT, but apparently it is.

 

1)If opener is weak NT size and shape, slam is out.

2)If opener is any strength, from 11 to ..... and unbalanced, then 4NT wasted 3 levels which could have been used for strain exploration.

3)If opener has 15-17 balanced, she would not have opened 1D.

4)If opener has 18-19 balanced in a style which allows a 1S rebid, slam will be reached without the 4NT quant.

 

Edited by aguahombre
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I have a 3-4-2-4 17 count, that's (more or less) what 4NT shows.

 

There are positional and non-positional stops. If I have a positional and partner a positional stop, I'd like to bid NT first.

It has to be something like this, pretty much down to the exact shape, since partner hasn't said anything about their hand yet. We don't know if they have a 4243 11 count or a 5071 18 count.

 

I actually would never bid it for this reason, since it's a crime to waste 3 levels of bidding when we know pretty much nothing about partner's hand, but if I did I guess this is what it would mean.

 

Edit: I guess RKC for is useful when we have 8 solid hearts, but I'm not really sure when else it's useful, and I feel like the balanced 17 count comes up more often than the huge hand with hearts.

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Over the years we have gained considerably when evaluating for NT level, by knowing that 17+14 =less than 33 --and defending against those who don't.

partner can have more than 14 hcp. I just tell him that I have 17ish hcp with 3-4-2-4 or 3-4-3-3 or so, and he can decide. my partner is one of the wise ones; he knows that 14 balanced will not usually suffice. thank you for your nice and slightly passive-aggressive reply.

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With a solid unknown I'd assume RKC for spades.

 

But I am sorely tempted to say the best answer to "what is it?" is "the wrong bid." Wasting 3 levels of bidding space, oh my.

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RKCB.

 

But if you have explicitly agreed to play it as quatititve, that would be

fine as well.

 

In the end it does not really matter, if you make this bid undiscussed, that

is your fault.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: Just read the previous reply, I agree - the answer is - "the wrong bid".

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Gwnn not quantitative! Why take up all that room when opener has so much more of his shape to describe? How does he know what to do with extra club length? Lots of hands we could have just found a trump suit and started cuebidding. You are making me sad B)
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Any suit can be bid and/or raised by 4sf. But if you want to invite quant. for 6 NT, this is impossible after say

1 1

1 2

2

 

So I would take it as invitational to 6 NT.

How is it impossible? You bid 2NT, then 4NT on your next turn. If you have your agreements down you could even show it with 3NT now and save yourself from having to make the bloody 10th trick.

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U R right, nothing is impossible for you.

 

But if you have not even defined what 4 NT shows, you surely have no idea, what 4sf and later 2 NT/3 NT/4 NT shows....

 

But it is always MUCH easier to KC for any other suit after 4sf, isn't it?

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Gwnn not quantitative! Why take up all that room when opener has so much more of his shape to describe? How does he know what to do with extra club length? Lots of hands we could have just found a trump suit and started cuebidding. You are making me sad ;)

sorry for ruining your day jdonn but I like simplicity and I like how

0NT=w-v

1NT=v+1 - x

2NT=x+1 - y

3NT=y+1 - z

4NT=z+1 - u

 

and more or less the same handtype. obviously not quite but I could construct a certain shape with a certain club holding and adding HCP continuously to the non-club suits, they will go through pass, 1NT, 2NT, 3NT and 4NT.

 

also

 

1x-1y

2z(not a reverse)-4NT

3z-4NT

 

1M-2y

2z-4N

 

and so on.

 

I don't like to have a headache whether in case b or case c it makes more or less sense to play quantitative. I just play Quantitative always yay.

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