Nilz Posted July 23, 2010 Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 What's the weakest hand that you'd pass with in 4th seat, after (1NT)-X-(XX)?Partner would double with most 16+ counts (although not wildly distributional ones).1NT was 12-14 and XX showed the balance of points (ie 8+). Does it make any difference if they play a weak or strong notrump?If vul and scoring matter, please feel free to distinguish. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted July 23, 2010 Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 Define partners X. Is it "I'm beating this" or "some picture cards". If it's the former I'd pass even with a zero count. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nilz Posted July 23, 2010 Author Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 Define partners X. Is it "I'm beating this" or "some picture cards". If it's the former I'd pass even with a zero count. Closer to 'some picture cards' than the former. Partner wouldn't have worthless cards like QJ stiff (unless he has 16+ points elsewhere), but may (and did) have something like Axx-KJxx-AKx-JTx.Would anyone advise doubling a weak notrump with that? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted July 23, 2010 Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 I would, but I wouldn't sit for a penalty redouble! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nilz Posted July 23, 2010 Author Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 I would, but I wouldn't sit for a penalty redouble! So you would not expect partner to run with a balanced 0-3 count (which he presumably must have)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted July 23, 2010 Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 No. Because like you said, you more or less know that he has that, but he really has no idea of YOUR distribution...so just bid your longest suit (lower if two equal) and hope for the best... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Nilz Posted July 23, 2010 Author Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 No. Because like you said, you more or less know that he has that, but he really has no idea of YOUR distribution...so just bid your longest suit (lower if two equal) and hope for the best... OK, thanks. So the answer to the original question is that you pass with almost any hand (especially balanced), since partner will know we have nothing, and can bid accordingly? And this is true whether the double shows 'some picture cards' or says "we're beating this"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted July 23, 2010 Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 I would, but I wouldn't sit for a penalty redouble! So you would not expect partner to run with a balanced 0-3 count (which he presumably must have)? If I trust that my opponents aren't having a misunderstanding about the redouble, then I think they can never psyche the redouble (unless they know our methods), in which case there is no need for the 0-3 balanced hand to pull, because partner might just have 7 tricks in hand. With a bad 16 count, doubler knows to pull. If I think the opponents are misunderstanding or are capable of psyching the redouble, then obviously bad hands have to pull. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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