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Western Cue Bids


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I know that a Western Cue Bid asks partner to bid NT (almost always 3NT) with a stopper in the opponents' suit, but it's not clear to me in which situations this is applicable. My understanding is that they apply when opponents have shown one suit, not two suits. Does it matter whether we have suit agreement (presumably in a minor)? If pard and I have agreed to play Western Cue Bids but not discussed when, should I expect this:

1-(1)-2-(P)

3-(P)-3

to be one? While we're in this auction, what would 3 have been instead of 3?

 

Thanks for your help.

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3 on your auction would be, at least for now, asking for a spade stopper ---Giving it a name, like WQ is fine, I guess. If opener does bid 3NT and responder pulls, then 3S was a cue for slam.

 

3 on your other scenario is a four card heart suit, for now. Also might have been a cue for slam. You will find out later.

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I find to be most useful to use cue in these kind of sequences as semi-stoper ask (K, Qx, Jxx, 10xxx will do). The logic is that the pard, himself having a robust stoper will usually remember to bid NT anyway, there is no real need to prompt him to do so. Those "both pards each have iffy stoper that combined are good enough" are frequent and hard to handle without this agreement. Therefore in this situation 3H bid would primarily show values in H and no help in spades.
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Zenko, in order for that to work, you need to back up and say that you would make a neg double with every hand which has 4 hearts, including those which have longer diamonds and game forcing values. I am not willing to do that.

 

But, it is true that on some auctions partner will know and show her stopper in their suit without needing to be reminded that she has one via a WQ ask. This just doesn't happen to be one of those cases, because of the danger that she will raise hearts. If 3H was a cue for slam, you won't care about the raise.

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My understanding is that they apply when opponents have shown one suit, not two suits.
When you are interested in no-trump after opponents have shown two suits, in some auctions, you can try cueing the suit in which you have the better stopper, asking, in the first instance, for a stopper in the other.
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My understanding is that they apply when opponents have shown one suit, not two suits.
When you are interested in no-trump after opponents have shown two suits, in some auctions, you can try cueing the suit in which you have the better stopper, asking, in the first instance, for a stopper in the other.

Couldn't you play it the other way round - cueing the suit you don't have a stopper in? Or is there some disadvantage to this?

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My understanding is that they apply when opponents have shown one suit, not two suits.
When you are interested in no-trump after opponents have shown two suits, in some auctions, you can try cueing the suit in which you have the better stopper, asking, in the first instance, for a stopper in the other.

Couldn't you play it the other way round - cueing the suit you don't have a stopper in? Or is there some disadvantage to this?

One disadvantage is that you need to agree that with partner because "everybody and their dog" plays it so that you bid the suit you have stopped unless there is only one enemy suit known.

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One disadvantage is that you need to agree that with partner because "everybody and their dog" plays it so that you bid the suit you have stopped unless there is only one enemy suit known.

At least when you life in some isolated places like the USA which are not so open for foreign ideas. :)

 

If you life in Poland you may know that anybody and his dog shows the suit where they need help in....

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