4 bidding problems?

[lakers1]

Playing swiss team. 2/1 system.

 

1) both white. You hold ♠Kxxxx ♥Axx ♦xxxx ♣x. LHO open 1♠, partner X, assume you bid 1NT. LHO rebid 2♠, pd jump to 4♥, what do your bid?

 

2) both white. You hold ♠Txx ♥QTxx ♦AJ8x ♣A9. Your partnership allows you to open all 11 HCP when white in first or second chair. So you duly open 1♦ first chair, LHO overcall 1♠, pd 2♣ (F1R), RHO pass, what do you bid?

 

3) both red. You hold ♠Q8x ♥K ♦AKxx ♣KQJxx. Pd open 1♠, you bid 2♣, pd 2♥, you bid 2♠, pd 4♠ shows minimum, what do you bid?

 

4) both white, You hold ♠Txx ♥AJTx ♦Qxx ♣Qxx. After two passes, LHO open 2♠, pd 3♦, what do you bid?

[Hanoi5]

1. Pass

2. 2♦, but I don't like it.

3. 4NT, wtp?

4. 3♥, what's a man to do?

[jjbrr]

I suggest not jumping to 4♠ when one of the hands in a GF auction is still unlimited.

 

I would have bid 2♦ on the first one.

 

2 i would bid 2♥, and 4 i would bid 3♠

[JLOGIC]

3. PASS, wtp?

FYP!

 

We have 1 keycard and terrible trumps. We need partner to have 3 keycards to have any chance, and even if he did if those 3 keycards are not AK of spades and an ace, we have a big problem in the trump suit and need him to have at least the jack.

 

The point is moot because partner should never jump to 4S with 3 keycards, that is a great hand for slam so there is no point in trying to shut partner up.

 

If anything to me fast arrival means "Partner I want to warn you strongly that my hand is very unsuitable for slam." Well, ours is too so thanks for the warning pard!

[nigel_k]

1. Pass. I limited my hand and partner signed off. He has plenty of other options if he can make slam opposite this.

 

2. 2NT. Right sides NT when we have no stopper.

 

3. Pass. What Justin said.

 

4. 3♠. Because I lack imagination.

[Siegmund]

1. Pass

2. Should have thought of that before you opened, eh? (In all fairness I do open this type of hand with one partner, but with that partner we explicitly agreed that 1♦-pass-2♣ is followed by stopper-showing, so in this auction I might get away with 2♥.)

3. I am willing to try 4NT. I understand that there's a case for passing.

4. Pass. It is a max pass, but not a close decision IMO. I wouldn't be at all surprised to see this be the last making contract. If partner doesn't have a 2NT overcall, pretty much no chance of 3NT. I'd be interested to hear more from the other respondents who bid...

[655321]

Pass seems obvious on (1) and (3), and 3♠ looks normal to me on (4).

 

(2) is interesting, I have played in a partnership where we bid 2♠ with this sort of hand. Without agreements you could probably get away with any of 2♦, 2♥, 2NT and 3♣. The fact that this is an 11 count which some people might pass is not relevant, obviously the same rebid problem is possible if you add one or two HCPs.

[the hog]

2D rather than 1NT on the first - now Pass

2D on the second

Pass the third

3S on the fourth

[mich-b]

1. Pass

2. 2NT

3. Pass wtp, pd will not have 3 keycards , and the 5 level is far from safe.

4. 3S - pd's overcall opposite my PH is usually a good hand.

[Fluffy]

p, ♦♦, p, ♠♠♠

[pooltuna]

1]pass - if partner makes a unilateral call....

 

2]2♦ at least you have 4 for your rebid it is really fun to rebid ♦ with just 3...

 

3]first I shoot myself for not bidding 3♦/2♥...in the given situation one last try with 5♦

 

4]3♠ as partner rates to have a fairly good hand in this situation.

[shyams]

1. Pass

2. I'd prefer 2NT, the downside is that I become declarer :lol:

3. Pass

4. At the table, I'd probably have passed. After reading the expert views above, I am convinced 3♠ is a proper bid

[lakers1]

Seems like everybody agrees to pass on hand 1.

 

Partner has ♠void ♥QJT9xxx ♦AK ♣AQxx

 

Partner had an unusual hand to bid – a seven-card two-loser suit when first round controls in all side-suits and a 4½ loser hand. East opened the bidding 1♠ and pd had to plan how to try and show this hand, Being much too strong to jump directly to 4♥, he elected to double first and then over his partner’s 1NT bid which shows some values and a spade stopper, he jumped to 4♥ – feeling that 3♥ would be forcing and show better hearts and 4♥ showed a hand that wanted to be in 4♥ and hoped that this sequence would deny solid trumps. I considered slightly and passed.

 

So the question is should partner have bid his hand differently or should I have cue-bid 5♣ over 4♥? This question comes up since declarer made thirteen tricks without even breathing hard! He ruffed the opening lead, ruffed two clubs – and the king dropped. Then he cashed the singleton ♥A – and the king dropped. Easy money!! Any blame here? With a trump lead, you need the either the singleton king or ♣ finesse (which rates to be on) and w/o one, 6♥ is just about 100%

[cherdanno]

I don't think partner should bid differently, I certainly thought that this hand was possible and was afraid to pass.

Of course, there are also similarly strong hands where slam is hopeless (any hand with 2 slow diamond losers), so probably passing is still right, as partner can also have a little less (not much less, as then he would jump to 4H first planning to double 4S).