kfay Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 How do you prefer to play: 1♦-(P)-1♥-(1♠)3♣ and 1♦-(1♠)-P-(P)3♣ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 I prefer forcing. The second one might be objected to, by those who like to open 2♣ with 2-suiters. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 First one forcing, second one not. Luckily my preference matches standard bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 Both situations looks very similar to me. I would play both of them as forcing and probably the second one should be stronger. I can bid 2♣ in both and also double (although in the first one it would probably be 3-card heart support which narrows my possibilities). As for being forcing, I think I agree with jdonn but only because if I REALLY had to force in the second one I might as well cue-bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 First one forcing, second one not. Luckily my preference matches standard bidding. Me too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 Me two. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 In my case I use 2NT good bad, so both are NF for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 1st forcing, 2nd not. Haha KFay........... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 First one forcing, second one not. Luckily my preference matches standard bidding. Agree except that its sometimes hard to know what is standard in these sort of situations. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted July 8, 2010 Report Share Posted July 8, 2010 Both situations looks very similar to me. I would play both of them as forcing and probably the second one should be stronger.How are they similar? In the first one partner has responded to your non-forcing opening bid, so it is logical to have some forcing bids available. In the second one, partner can still have nothing, 1♦ was not forcing, so it is not logical for any of opener's bids to be forcing. Anyway agree with first one forcing, second one not. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 9, 2010 Report Share Posted July 9, 2010 Forcing, NF Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszeszycki Posted July 9, 2010 Report Share Posted July 9, 2010 1♦-(P)-1♥-(1♠)3♣ 1♦-(1♠)-P-(P)3♣ I think the standard interpretation is first forcing 2nd not. How I prefer to play isanother matter entirely. the two situations are extremely dissimilar and in situation 1 those of you that playsupport x are at a disadvantage. hand 1 NF the first I would play as strongly invitational --a hand not strong enough to bid 3s (asking for spade stop for 3n) or even 2s (a bid that says nothing about heart support) and wrong distribution for x something similar toxx x KQJxx AKQxx hand 2 NF the second as non forcing and very distributional and weak similar to void x Axxxxx AQxxxx bidding 2c in this position should generally be stronger than bidding 3c.The reason for this is you are backing into an auction where there is significant danger in the form of the opps making a game and at least by preemting with a weak hand you make it harder for either to compete because of the unknown nature of your partners hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted July 9, 2010 Report Share Posted July 9, 2010 i play standard also Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted July 9, 2010 Report Share Posted July 9, 2010 Both non-forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sectorzz9 Posted July 9, 2010 Report Share Posted July 9, 2010 First forcing, second NF for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted July 10, 2010 Report Share Posted July 10, 2010 In my case I use 2NT good bad, so both are NF for me. You use a _jump_ to 2NT as good/bad? What do you do with a strong balanced hand (particularly on the first one)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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