You doubled

[Hanoi5]

You pick up:

 

♠x

♥Axx

♦AKJTx

♣AKJT

 

It goes:

 

1♣-X

 

Better than 1♦, right?

 

1♣-X-Pa-1♥

2♣-2♦-Pa-2♠

Pa-???

 

Do you agree with the bidding so far? Why? Why not? Opener might not have rebid clubs anyway, but just in case, does it change anything? What would you bid now? By the way, you don't play ELC or anything like that.

[CSGibson]

partner should have 5+ hearts and 4 spades, assuming he knows what he's doing. I am going to just bid 4 hearts.

[Siegmund]

4H looks pretty clear now. I could have had less for my 2D bid, but I don't see a better alternative on the previous round, and I don't see us having the methods to explore sanely for a slam.

[whereagles]

Agree with the bidding so far and that pard should have 45 majors and some 5-7 points. However, I wouldn't bid 4♥ right away because pard may have only a 44 and chose to bid it this way.

 

3♥ for me thus. We're in a GF situation anyway, so...

[jjbrr]

3♣ followed by 4♥

[kfay]

How many club stoppers do I need to bid NTs?

 

I bid a forcing 2NT.

[Hanoi5]

How many club stoppers do I need to bid NTs?

 

I bid a forcing 2NT.

I thought I was playing a different game!

 

What should partner do with:

 

♠T8xx

♥QJxx

♦xxx

♣xx

 

?

[Phil]

How many club stoppers do I need to bid NTs?

 

I bid a forcing 2NT.

I thought I was playing a different game!

 

What should partner do with:

 

♠T8xx

♥QJxx

♦xxx

♣xx

 

?

1♠ obv

[aguahombre]

I think there is a difference of opinion about when to make a "prepared" 1S advance with 4 4 (32) distribution.

 

One group might only do that if they (advancer) has enough strength to voluntarily make another call without further action from the doubler. And that group might think doubler should be bidding NT rather than assuming 4-5 in the majors from partner at the point where he bid 2S in this case, or on the previous round.

 

The other group would always bid 1S with 4-4M and 0-5 points; but are likely to cue the double with 6-7. This group would know partner has 5 hearts, here.

[kfay]

All I know is, when partner bids a new suit after I double and bid my suit... we're in a GF.

[mikeh]

I think there is a difference of opinion about when to make a "prepared" 1S advance with 4 4 (32) distribution.

 

One group might only do that if they (advancer) has enough strength to voluntarily make another call without further action from the doubler.  And that group might think doubler should be bidding NT rather than assuming 4-5 in the majors from partner at the point where he bid 2S in this case, or on the previous round.

 

The other group would always bid 1S with 4-4M and 0-5 points; but are likely to cue the double with 6-7.  This group would know partner has 5 hearts, here.

Wasn't there a thread a month or so ago on this? I thought it was almost universal (and even more so amongst good players) to bid 1♠ on 4-4...it doesn't matter about whether you intend to make one bid or two....when you are very weak, which is when you 'intend' to make one bid, partner will often be strong and will cuebid, and you are screwed if you bid 1♥ first. You may survive your screwing, but there is no doubt but that you have created ambiguity while destroying bidding space...never a good combination.

 

So here, partner has 4=5 or so in the majors.

 

I agree with kfay that it is premature to commit to hearts....I bid the forcing 2N as well, albeit without a lot of confidence. I am really worried about spades for 3N, but maybe I'll hear 3♦ from partner, and that would make 9 tricks seem relatively easy so I'd bid 3N then. I'd pass 3N and raise hearts, and bid 3♥ over an unlikely 3♣ (meaning what?..which is why I deem it unlikely)

[aguahombre]

Mike: Yes, there was (thread); yes, it was fairly universal (among strong players) to bid 1s with 4-4, regardless. I was not advocating the other, merely saying that there is another view. No question the 1S thing is better, but I think the light cue is a good idea, too---to take strain off the doubler in many common situations and find the 4-4 fit.

[Phil]

All I know is, when partner bids a new suit after I double and bid my suit... we're in a GF.

You sure?

[zasanya]

I think there is a difference of opinion about when to make a "prepared" 1S advance with 4 4 (32) distribution.

 

One group might only do that if they (advancer) has enough strength to voluntarily make another call without further action from the doubler.  And that group might think doubler should be bidding NT rather than assuming 4-5 in the majors from partner at the point where he bid 2S in this case, or on the previous round.

 

The other group would always bid 1S with 4-4M and 0-5 points; but are likely to cue the double with 6-7.  This group would know partner has 5 hearts, here.

Wasn't there a thread a month or so ago on this? I thought it was almost universal (and even more so amongst good players) to bid 1♠ on 4-4...it doesn't matter about whether you intend to make one bid or two....when you are very weak, which is when you 'intend' to make one bid, partner will often be strong and will cuebid, and you are screwed if you bid 1♥ first. You may survive your screwing, but there is no doubt but that you have created ambiguity while destroying bidding space...never a good combination.

 

So here, partner has 4=5 or so in the majors.

 

I agree with kfay that it is premature to commit to hearts....I bid the forcing 2N as well, albeit without a lot of confidence. I am really worried about spades for 3N, but maybe I'll hear 3♦ from partner, and that would make 9 tricks seem relatively easy so I'd bid 3N then. I'd pass 3N and raise hearts, and bid 3♥ over an unlikely 3♣ (meaning what?..which is why I deem it unlikely)

Mike is it possible to play this way?

op 1♣-dbl-op p-1♥=Advancer has (4+)♥ may have 4♠

op p-2♦= doubler denies 4♠-op p-advancer 2♥=5+card ♥ may have 4 card ♠ but decides not to show it as doubler has denied 4 cards ♠ Or advancer bids

2♠-4 card ♠ and weak hand willingness to play 4-3 fit and no ♣ stopper or ♦ support?

Advancer bids 1 ♠ and then 2♥ to show ♠ longer than ♥.

 

Thus with 4-4 majors advancer first bids ♥ and then bids ♠ only when doubler does not immediately support ♥.

With 5 ♥ and 4♠ advancer bids ♥ and rebids them if doubler does not bid ♠ With 5 ♠ and 4 ♥ advancer bids ♠ and then rebids ♥.

Edited July 3, 2010 by zasanya

[ONEferBRID]

As explained to me some years ago:

 

1C ( or 1D) - X - p - ??

 

" When partner makes a takeout double and you advance with 1H, a 1S bid ( next by partner--the doubler) would show a big hand with long Spades. So you can't find a 4-4 (Ht) fit that way. It is up to advancer to introduce both suits. And by bidding 1S first, doubler can play in either suit at the two-level. Should advancer bid 1H then 2S, doubler would have to convert to H at the 3-level."

 

"This is nothing new, you will find this treatment recommended in Goren books from the 1950's. "

 

This is an exception to "bidding up-the-line" .

 

Another expert put it this way:

" Advancer knows that doubler is not going to name a 4-card suit on the next round. So, after 1m - X - p - ??, Advancer bids Spades first, because if your partner has only one major, you must offer him the second suit ( without reversing ) . "

 

For example:

1D - X - p - 1S

p - 2D! - p - 2H

 

But here is a hand that went wrong:

Doubler   Advancer

A K Q x    J x x x

K x x        J 9 x x

Q T          J x

A K x x    Q x x

 

1D - X - p - 1H

p - 2D! - p - 2H

p - 4H - all pass

[zasanya]

Thank you oneferbrid

[dake50]

Power double with xfer responses.

1H-> spades AND wasn't a 'joker'(lowest xfer if garbage) so 5+useful. . . 3N.