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Probably about 30% of the time with diamonds and 20% with clubs. A little more often with diamonds since 1 1 2 3 is so bad, and since it's possible for partner to get to 2 after a 1NT rebid but not 2.
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how often do you rebid 1NT on

 

2542 or 2524 after

 

1H-1S

?

Playing IMPs, one should frequently bid 1NT with 5422, because what it misses is some partials and when your side can force to game, it's always not very difficult to find the

potential minor suit fit by two way checkback. This would also make the overall strength of 1H 1S 2m stronger and the subsequent bidding slightly easier.

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Holding 2452 with 16HCP and playing 15-17 1NT, do you open 1NT or open 1 planning to reverse to after partner's likely 1 response?

I would need an ultra pure 16 like xx AKxx AKQxx xx to reverse. So almost always 1N.

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Holding 2452 with 16HCP and playing 15-17 1NT, do you open 1NT or open 1 planning to reverse to after partner's likely 1 response?

I would need an ultra pure 16 like xx AKxx AKQxx xx to reverse. So almost always 1N.

Agreed. So, I also rebid 1NT with the 13-count unless the values are concentrated in the long suits.

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