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Auction question


ajm218

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What is the framework? Std? 2/1? what have the other bids shown? I think in some partnerships 4 would not exist. In some it might even be a splinter with diamond support. Maybe it is a bad opening bid with good 3-card heart support. As stated many times, I believe space-consuming jumps in forcing auctions should be VERY specific.

 

I prefer 4 to not happen at all without prior discussion.

 

edit: in ours, we would have 6-3 with good cards in the 2 majors, and a couple worthless doubletons in the minors.

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Playing "standard" as opposed to 2 over 1, I can't think of another meaning for 4H other than as a splinter agreeing diamonds. 2S has 100% denied 3H.

I don't think so. We could still wan to play in our 6-3 in spades even if we know we have a hearts fit.

 

I think 6322 with values concentrated in the majors make sense. Wouldn't assume this to be a splinter undiscussed.

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I'm assuming the pair was NOT playing 2/1 GF.

Thus, 2H just promised one rebid and that was 3 .

So a 3 support bid now by Opener would not be forcing.

That's my only explanation for the 4H bid.

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

If the 2H bid WAS a 2/1 GF, then the delayed 4H-jump could be construed as a splinter* for the last bid suit ( ) , but I'd be afraid to use it.

________________________________________________________________

* " An unusual jump, which makes no sense otherwise, guarantees a fit for the last-named suit by Partner and shows a Singleton or a Void in the suit in which the jump is made. "

___________________________________________

The following are standard splinters in partner's original suit:

1 - 1

1 - 4! = splinter for

 

1 - 1

2 - 4! = splinter for , slamtry.

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If 2 is non-forcing and 3 guaranties four, splinter is the only thing that makes sense to me.

 

The hands that warrants concealment of an eight-card-fit, with a non-forcing bid, is so rare; a splinter in diamonds is much more likely to be usefull.

 

Also consider that 3 -something, 4 is an option too, so it isn't even all the hands.

 

If opener really wanted to suppres his hearts, he must have a hand that would love to hear 3 on 3.

 

I am not familiar with 2/1, but if 2 is forcing, picture makes more sense to me, than does splinter. But I don't find it clearcut.

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OK, another point of view : 4 is ace asking agreeing diamonds.

 

That's actually what it would be for me. 2 does not show 6, it is just a hand not strong enough to bid 3, or a hand too strong for 3 . (3 is about a 15/16 sort of strength.) But with 4 or 5 diamonds and 17+ I am delighted to go slamming.

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To me this is easy:

2 showed 5+ spades, but Minimum.

After 3 partner shows real heart support (3+) and real Minimum (10-12).

 

3 had been stronger (13-14).

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I'm assuming the pair was NOT playing 2/1 GF.

Thus, 2H just promised one rebid and that was 3 .

So a 3 support bid now by Opener would not be forcing.

That's my only explanation for the 4H bid.

Nah, 3 is GF even in Acol.

 

If 2 is NF then 4 is a little weird but maybe it could be based on a very minimal hand with 6 chunky spades that didn't want to encourage too much by bidding 3 before.

 

Not sure if 3 would be forcing in SAYC (some sources say 1-2-3 is an exception to the rule a 2/1 promises a rebid, that makes no sense to me but maybe some people play that). But if 2 is forcing but 3 is not then this sequence makes perfect sense as a picture bid with 3-6 majors.

 

Dunno if we should assume 2/1 in threads like this. But as long as 2 promises a rebid it doesn't really matter here.

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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

 

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.

 

- It's the only way to avoid tiresome discussions on the lines of "It's standard to play it as x". "No it isn't." "It's standard in 2/1." "Who said we're playing 2/1?" "2/1 is standard." "No it isn't - in Barbados Precison is standard."

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