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Hand from last night


ajm218

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Gwnn: from listening to young people, I am guessing definition number 4, but closer to "lame".

 

GGwhiz: Maybe I would have doubled as opener with that, too. But I would have been wrong on this hand --since partner should bid 5C if I don't, with the hand he has. I think 5C vul will score better.

 

Come to think of it, double might be wrong in theory, too. The only thing really going for the double is the strong suggestion not to rebid spades. But pass does that, too.

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5 IS best but as a matter of style and partnership, I can't bid a direct 4 over 4 as opener with a lot of hands that most others would.

 

My regular pard is aggressive and it's fear and loathing about what they would bid next. Our problem on these cards, should I bid 5 might well be staying out of slam! It's an imperfect world.

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My best pip was the 7 :)

Ah, then I was misinformed.

 

Even with such manky clubs, maybe you should convert 4 to 5. After all, the reason that you passed 4 rather than doubling was that you have lots of playing strength if playing in clubs.

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My best pip was the 7 :)

Ah, then I was misinformed.

 

Even with such manky clubs, maybe you should convert 4 to 5. After all, the reason that you passed 4 rather than doubling was that you have lots of playing strength if playing in clubs.

Doesn't pass then 5 show a lot better hand than 7 manky clubs and more than half our points stuffed into a doubleton in our suit?

 

I would have doubled with this hand. A void in partners suit, and AQ of theirs doesn't bode well for a spade contract. There's no reason to think partner fits clubs or diamonds either.

 

Also, I'm wondering if a direct or a delayed 4N indicates secondary diamonds.

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Doesn't pass then 5 show a lot better hand than 7 manky clubs and more than half our points stuffed into a doubleton in our suit?

No. We didn't pass and then remove a penalty double. We passed and then corrected partner's suggested contract to a different contract.

 

I would have doubled with this hand. A void in partners suit, and AQ of theirs doesn't bode well for a spade contract. There's no reason to think partner fits clubs or diamonds either.

Would you have done the same with xx AQx AJxx J10xx ? It feels a bit odd to bid two such different hands the same way.

 

Also, I'm wondering if a direct or a delayed 4N indicates secondary diamonds.

I think that a direct 4NT should certainly show diamonds. I wouldn't want to do it on this hand, though. If you play in diamonds, what are you going to do with all those clubs?

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Gnasher:

 

1. I think its a good question whether pass and pull a call denotes as strong hand or is just looking for a better fit. I confess I haven't given it any thought, and I haven't read Kantar's book on FPs.

 

2. xx AQx AJxx JTxx (which the OP indicated is not a 1 opener, but w/e), is a hand that is much more interested in hearing a 4 call. A void in pard's suit is a very defensive holding, so I don't think its strange at all to double with either, but the 0=2=4=7 seems like it wants to defend. Void AQ Axxx JTxxxxx is a very unusual hand, so it doesn't surprise me if there is a 'right' way to bid it.

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