even simpler bidding question

[billw55]

♠KJxx

♥x

♦KQxxxx

♣xx

 

Partner opens 1♥, righty passes. Do you bid:

 

a.) 1♠ then diamonds over 1NT or 2♣ or 2♥

b.) 1NT then diamonds over 2♣ or 2♥

c.) something else?

[gwnn]

In my favourite system I bid:

 

1♠ over 1♥ and then over

1N I can sign off in diamonds, good

2♣ bid 2♥ and hope the auction does not get out of hand

2♦ never gonna happen

2♥ I pass. 3♦ is quasi-natural GF.

[semeai]

Definitely A. B would lose the spade suit. Once you're game forcing, bid 2♦, though some choose to bid 1♠ first even then (a substantial minority have this treatment, I believe). When you're strong enough to bid 2♦, but not game forcing, it's more of a tossup. Perhaps most still bid 2♦ in this situation.

[jjbrr]

I'd start with 1♠ and see what happens. If partner bids 1NT, we'll land in 2♦.

[karlson]

Yes, there's a downside to responding 1♠ which is that you probably won't get to play a partscore in diamonds unless partner rebids 1n. But there are too many factors against suppressing the spade suit here.

-your hand is decent and may well make 4♠ opposite not a whole lot

-your hand is not so one-suited to make diamonds the 100% right partscore strain. If partner rebids 2♥, I think he could easily make it.

 

If your hand was xxxx --- QJT9xxx xx you'd see votes for 1n, guaranteeing being able to play in diamonds. But some people will hate it even on that hand.

[gwnn]

note that in many systems you cant really sign off in 2D even after a forcing NT since

1M-1N

2c-2D is artificial, even if 2C was natural NF.

[billw55]

Interesting. Is anyone worried about this auction:

 

1♥ - 1♠

(1NT or 2♣) - 2♦

2♠

 

It seems reasonable for partner to take a preference with, say, 2-2 in my bid suits, and certainly with 3-2 or 2-1. Will partner be understanding that I have bid a 4 card suit before a 6 bagger?

 

Should I continue with 3♦? What if my hand was weaker? Or if partner returns again to 3♠? hmmmm

[jjbrr]

Er. I thought many (most?) played 2m as artificial after 1H-1S-1N or 2C? Am I wrong?

[gwnn]

bill, nah, just pass 2S

 

oh yes well that isnt really going to happen.

 

1H-1S

1N-2C asks for 2D for most people

 

1H-1S

2C-2D is 4sf, to game or 1 round, but not natural.

 

bottom line: everything is simple as long as you know your agreements.

 

Phrased a little more precisely: everything is impossible, but especially if you have no agreements.

[mikeh]

This is a good hand for a method that most but not all of the posters state or imply that they play: over 1N, they use 2♣ as a puppet to 2♦, either (as here) to play or in order to make a natural invitational bid at their next turn.

 

If not playing that method, then I suppose that partner could take a preference to 2♠, but he shouldn't. My expectation is that if you don't play 2 way new minor, then you probably are traditional to the point of not rebidding 1N over 1♠ with a stiff in spades. In turn this means that responder, with 5 spades and no game interest, should rebid 2♠ rather than introduce a 4-5 card diamond suit. And since nobody would pull 1N with 4=2=4=3, this means that we are showing 5+ diamonds and a weak hand. Partner should have an automatic pass, except perhaps at mps with 3 strong spades and 3=5=2=3 shape.

 

I agree with 1♠, then puppetting to 2♦ (or bidding 2♦ if I have to due to method), and I agree with bidding 2♥ over 2♣. That's not as bad as it might seem. I actually have a good hand if partner now chooses, for example, 2N. 3N will usually be cold then (it may need a 3-2 diamond break).

 

I pass 2♥ and consider even thinking of another call to be an overbid...I have 9 hcp, even a ruffing value of sorts (so the opps have to worry about drawing at least one round of trump, gaining partner a tempo. 3♦ is forcing: effectively to game unless you plan to hand partner by passing 3♥ or 3♠ (and if you do....precisely how has that improved things?)

[Phil]

1♠. My plan is (over):

 

1N - 2♣ to bid 2♦ (even though I might be worth 3♦ now);

 

2♣ - 3♦ which is a weak 64 in Walsh.

 

2♦ - I'm dreaming....

 

2♥ - pass

[P_Marlowe]

♠KJxx

♥x

♦KQxxxx

♣xx

 

Partner opens 1♥, righty passes.  Do you bid:

 

a.) 1♠ then diamonds over 1NT or 2♣ or 2♥

b.) 1NT then diamonds over 2♣ or 2♥

c.) something else?

Hi,

 

This is basically a systemic question, but assuming you play standard:

 

You can upgrade the hand, so that the hand becomes worth an invite,

i.e. 2D followed by 3D, you have a 6 carder, all of your points are

working, not brilliant but the alternative of bidding 1S is also not

brilliant, since you wont have a chance to bid your 6 card suit.

 

The main issue with your seq. suggested in a) is, that p will give preference

with 2 spades, afterall, if you have 5 spades and 4 diamonds, you would

bid the same.

 

I would not follow your suggested b) seq., since this will burry the spades

completely, unless p will make a reverse, and you are supermax for this

seq. anyway.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[Free]

1♠ is clear imo.

 

Over 1NT I can bid 2♣ as puppet to 2♦

Over 2♥ I have an easy pass

Over 2♣ I bid 2♦, because 2♣ is Gazzilli and 2♦ shows 8+HCP ;)