kfay Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Q QJ8765 KQ Q864 Partner opens a modern 1♠ 1st seat r/w IMPs. You can bid 1NT semi-forcing or make a 2/1 GF. What do you do? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mich-b Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 2♥What's a "modern 1♠"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1nt easy modern easy 2h olden....roth.....hmmm sorry I know roth is hated ........ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Don't like my heart suit so 1NT it is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1NT. Not close. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Little Kid Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 I'm all for game-forcing with 12-count 6-4's at vul but this hand just has way too many negative features imo. Singleton Q♠ might be slightly useful because it is in partner's suit but the fact that it is a singleton reduces its value and suggests the hand may not fit very well. The doubleton KQ♣, lack of controls, no intermediates, not many supporting sequences in long suits, honours in short suits and a lot of quacks in general are just too much for me to GF. I will invite in ♥ whether that be 3♥ now or 3♥ later via 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1NT wtp? sometimes kfay's threads are more obvious than gwnn's Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1NT yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 2♥, looks the most straightforward way to bid a vulnerable game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Q QJ8765 KQ Q864 Partner opens a modern 1♠ 1st seat r/w IMPs. You can bid 1NT semi-forcing or make a 2/1 GF. What do you do? I downgrade and bid a SF1NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 You can bid 1NT semi-forcing or make a 2/1 GF. I don't know a lot about 2/1, so maybe stupid questions:Is it standard/common to have 1NT semi-forcing with 2/1? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 You can bid 1NT semi-forcing or make a 2/1 GF. I don't know a lot about 2/1, so maybe stupid questions:Is it standard/common to have 1NT semi-forcing with 2/1? It is, but you usually have a way to show an invitational hand with 6 of a suit. We have to live with what KFay plays. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 2♥ even though it's clearly an overbid since after 1NT I am likely to have a guess next round and not get my shape across. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszeszycki Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 QQJ8765KQQ864 p opens 1s we bid 2H WAYYYYY too embarrasing to miss 4h opposite sayKxxxx ATx xx AJx OR Axxxxxxx xxAKx to even CONSIDER starting with semi forcing 1n---yes on rare occassion opener will have a 2 suiter we are in a misfit and we go down but it is FAR more likely we will have excellent play for game opposite a vast majority of 1s opening bids. Pessimism can only be stretched so far:) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 you are overstating the likelihood of game. simulation anyone? (not saying a simulation can prove how much better 1NT is, but it could prove that it is not FAR more likely that we have an excellent game opposite the majority of 1S bids) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 I gave partner a 5332 distribution with 12-13 HCP. On those hands 4H makes 45% of the time double dummy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 We tried a semi-forcing Club system, but purists got upset with us and said we couldn't call it Precision. Then, to our surprise, we found that we had no way to open a hand with 16+ and assure that we would get another round of bidding in. So, we switched to 2/1. And people let us call it that, even though the forcing 1NT was a cornerstone and we only make it semi-forcing. Now, when Partner opens 1S we can easily play the hand in 1NT every time we have any hand with less than game force ---even some which have 3-card support. It definitely simplifies our auctions. Of course, sometimes we can pass 1S without support, a side seven-card suit, and about 6-9 points --knowing that partner didn't open a semi-forcing 2C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 I gave partner a 5332 distribution with 12-13 HCP. On those hands 4H makes 45% of the time double dummy. This makes perhaps 2♥ right I think but his claim is still false :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 1S-1N-, 2m-?? 2H as if 6-suit with 7pts? 3H as 6-suit with 9-10? 4H as 6-suit with 11-12? Which rebid catches 1N 1st back to right level of game invite? What's wrong with 2H with 6-suit with 12 as GF? What IS minimum GF? Opener may have misfit 10-12? 3NT fails, pay out! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 I gave partner a 5332 distribution with 12-13 HCP. On those hands 4H makes 45% of the time double dummy. Do most 5332 13-counts pass 1NT? Given that a lot of of 5332 14-counts get upgraded to a 1NT opening, that doesn't leave us with many hands that are "semi-forced". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 2♥ even though it's clearly an overbid since after 1NT I am likely to have a guess next round and not get my shape across. I think that's the more important of the two reasons for preferring 2♥. 1NT would be much more attractive if we thought that we'd have a good auction after 1♠-1NT;2m. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peachy Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 1NT. For me, this is not even a problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hijumper Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 1nt then 3h Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 I gave partner a 5332 distribution with 12-13 HCP. On those hands 4H makes 45% of the time double dummy. Do most 5332 13-counts pass 1NT? Given that a lot of of 5332 14-counts get upgraded to a 1NT opening, that doesn't leave us with many hands that are "semi-forced". Yes I pass most 5332 13-counts. You? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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