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Couple of things I don't seem to get


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Two auctions seem to have strange "expert standard" understandings, apparently. They just seem insane to me.

 

Auction #1:

 

1-P-1-P-

2-P-2???

 

If this sequence forcing? Or, would Responder always go through 2 with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2 is passable?

 

Auction #2:

 

1-P-1-(1)

2-P-2???

 

Same general question -- is 2 forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2?

 

For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF.

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Two auctions seem to have strange "expert standard" understandings, apparently.  They just seem insane to me.

 

Auction #1:

 

1-P-1-P-

2-P-2???

 

If this sequence forcing?  Or, would Responder always go through 2 with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2 is passable?.

2 is forcing (1 round) , with 4+ s

2 is forcing without 4s.

I know some experts play a nf 2 here, but I don't think it is standard.

 

Auction #2:

 

1-P-1-(1)

2-P-2???

 

Same general question -- is 2 forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2?

 

For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF.

2 is natural and NF.

Strong hands can choose between a GF 2, a double (if they can stand a penalty pass) or 3.

Edit : Sorry, misread the auction as

1-P-1-(1)

P-P-2???

With the original auction 2 , 2 for me is F1.

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I guess we might need discussion.

 

 

 

2h=natural and nf

 

here I assume 2d would be art and 100% game force

 

 

 

 

-----------

 

 

example two....2d=art and 100% gf.

 

here I just assume 2d=art and 100% game force.

-----------

 

 

I note 100% the opp of the post above me.

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Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force.

That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1.

 

Example #2 is NF.

 

That seems pretty foundational.

This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game.

 

OP is asking about "expert standard", and I don't claim to know anything about that, so I'll leave that conversation to the experts.

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For me both are forcing. Not sure if this is expert standard...

 

First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery. It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2 here as forcing.

 

Second one is less obvious. If opener has long and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract. Obviously 2 is forcing if there's no intervention. With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support. Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score? That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach. ;)

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For me both are forcing.  Not sure if this is expert standard...

 

First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery.  It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2 here as forcing.

 

Second one is less obvious.  If opener has long and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract.  Obviously 2 is forcing if there's no intervention.  With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support.  Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score?  That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach.  :P

Qxxx Kxxx Kxxxx --?

Qxx Kxxxx Q10xxx --?

Qxx Kxxx Q10xxxx --?

 

When there is no spade raise, Responder having spades seems reasonably likely.

 

Not that this answers anything, but "we found a playable spot" seems to be an overbid.

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Opener will not have a lousy 6 card since he can pass. So he either has a good 6 card or at least a 7 card . If opener has some s with that as well, how big is the chance of him having 3 s? If he doesn't, the opps will probably bid 2 (direct or after a Dbl).

 

In both cases it's probably a reasonable spot and there are no guarantees we won't make thing worse by bidding. If you get Doubled in 2 you can still run to 2 and hope for the best. I admit that it's definitely possible 2 is a better spot, we just don't know.

 

If you play 2 as NF, I'd definitely suggest you treat it as longer , to avoid opener bidding 2 on 2-2 in the reds.

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Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force.

That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1.

 

Example #2 is NF.

 

That seems pretty foundational.

 

This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game.

I'm sorry, I missed the notrump bid in the example shown.

 

I looked up what I thought was the original example in The Bidding Dictionary afterward, and that still says forcing.

 

I think I am going to stick with reading my books.

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The responer to the opening bid is using low level transfers. the latest style,and the rebid by opener shows the quality,so not forcing according to the openers rebid
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I think the standard is that a new suit by responder is forcing one round. There are a few exceptions:

 

1 Opener has rebid 1nt. Now responder must jump or reverse to force (although nmf is a common convention)

 

2 Responder is a passed hand

 

3 Responder made a prior non-forcing call

 

4 Responder's bid is at the game level

 

5 Opener passed the opponents' one-level overcall (basically implies a weak nt so really same as number 1)

 

I would say that both the given sequences are forcing in standard (obviously one could agree otherwise)

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