kenrexford Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Two auctions seem to have strange "expert standard" understandings, apparently. They just seem insane to me. Auction #1: 1♣-P-1♠-P-2♣-P-2♥??? If this sequence forcing? Or, would Responder always go through 2♦ with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2♥ is passable? Auction #2: 1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)2♣-P-2♦??? Same general question -- is 2♦ forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2♠? For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mich-b Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Two auctions seem to have strange "expert standard" understandings, apparently. They just seem insane to me. Auction #1: 1♣-P-1♠-P-2♣-P-2♥??? If this sequence forcing? Or, would Responder always go through 2♦ with a hand that would force ghame, such that 2♥ is passable?.2♥ is forcing (1 round) , with 4+ ♥s 2♦ is forcing without 4♥s.I know some experts play a nf 2♥ here, but I don't think it is standard. Auction #2: 1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)2♣-P-2♦??? Same general question -- is 2♦ forcing, or would any GF hand with hearts and diamonds go through 2♠? For both of these, assume Responder could jump to show 5-5 GF.2♦ is natural and NF.Strong hands can choose between a GF 2♠, a double (if they can stand a penalty pass) or 3♦.Edit : Sorry, misread the auction as 1♣-P-1♥-(1♠)P-P-2♦???With the original auction 2 , 2♦ for me is F1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 I guess we might need discussion. 2h=natural and nf here I assume 2d would be art and 100% game force ----------- example two....2d=art and 100% gf. here I just assume 2d=art and 100% game force.----------- I note 100% the opp of the post above me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 seems like we have different standards... I learned it was NF lol Still, you can play it both ways. I prefer ken's way #2. 1m 1M2m 1st step = F1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted June 6, 2010 Report Share Posted June 6, 2010 Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force. That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1. Example #2 is NF. That seems pretty foundational. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bbradley62 Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force. That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1. Example #2 is NF. That seems pretty foundational. This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game. OP is asking about "expert standard", and I don't claim to know anything about that, so I'll leave that conversation to the experts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 For me both are forcing. Not sure if this is expert standard... First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery. It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2♥ here as forcing. Second one is less obvious. If opener has long ♣ and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract. Obviously 2♦ is forcing if there's no intervention. With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support. Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score? That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted June 7, 2010 Author Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 For me both are forcing. Not sure if this is expert standard... First one is obviously forcing since I play reversed Flannery. It's pretty popular these days, so I guess most play 2♥ here as forcing. Second one is less obvious. If opener has long ♣ and responder has a misfit, he better passes instead of looking for a better contract. Obviously 2♦ is forcing if there's no intervention. With the intervention however you may find reasons to make it NF, like opener probably doesn't have a 3 card support. Still I think you've found a playable part score, so why risk it by bidding to another part score? That's why I play this as forcing, although I'm not claiming that this is the best approach. :P ♠Qxxx ♥Kxxx ♦Kxxxx ♣--? ♠Qxx ♥Kxxxx ♦Q10xxx ♣--?♠Qxx ♥Kxxx ♦Q10xxxx ♣--? When there is no spade raise, Responder having spades seems reasonably likely. Not that this answers anything, but "we found a playable spot" seems to be an overbid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 Opener will not have a lousy 6 card ♣ since he can pass. So he either has a good 6 card or at least a 7 card ♣. If opener has some ♠s with that as well, how big is the chance of him having 3 ♦s? If he doesn't, the opps will probably bid 2♠ (direct or after a Dbl). In both cases it's probably a reasonable spot and there are no guarantees we won't make thing worse by bidding. If you get Doubled in 2♣ you can still run to 2♦ and hope for the best. I admit that it's definitely possible 2♦ is a better spot, we just don't know. If you play 2♦ as NF, I'd definitely suggest you treat it as longer ♦, to avoid opener bidding 2♥ on 2-2 in the reds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
CarlRitner Posted June 7, 2010 Report Share Posted June 7, 2010 Standard is that a new suit by an unpassed responder is a natural 1-round force. That's what I learned (uncontested auction #1). F-1. Example #2 is NF. That seems pretty foundational. This in an inaccurate generalization. The auction 1m-1S-1N-2H is non-forcing, with responder showing 5S and 4H and asking opener to sign off at the 2 level. With an invitational hand (or better), responder uses New Minor Forcing, allowing opener to reveal a possible 4-4 H fit as part of investigating game. I'm sorry, I missed the notrump bid in the example shown. I looked up what I thought was the original example in The Bidding Dictionary afterward, and that still says forcing. I think I am going to stick with reading my books. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pirate22 Posted June 8, 2010 Report Share Posted June 8, 2010 The responer to the opening bid is using low level transfers. the latest style,and the rebid by opener shows the quality,so not forcing according to the openers rebid Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 8, 2010 Report Share Posted June 8, 2010 I think the standard is that a new suit by responder is forcing one round. There are a few exceptions: 1 Opener has rebid 1nt. Now responder must jump or reverse to force (although nmf is a common convention) 2 Responder is a passed hand 3 Responder made a prior non-forcing call 4 Responder's bid is at the game level 5 Opener passed the opponents' one-level overcall (basically implies a weak nt so really same as number 1) I would say that both the given sequences are forcing in standard (obviously one could agree otherwise) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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