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ATB for this bottom


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West signed off about as many times as humanly possible.  Why did east decide to try 4 at matchpoints?

 

That said, I prefer a 2 rebid for west.

Agree on both accounts. When West bids 3N over 3 showing a clear heart stopper, East without extras and with poor diamonds (and only 1 more than the 4-6 he showed) should happily pass with his help in hearts. While I think 2 is a better rebid, West's limiting his hand to 12-14 with 1N makes East's continued bidding more clearly wrong.

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At matchpoints I would also give up after 3NT since this scenario where we end up in 5 is intolerable.

 

I would have tried 6 over 5.

I would also have rebid 2 instead of 1NT.

 

As much as 23% for 5+1 is a miracle.

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On this hand once you decide to go past 3N you might as well bid 6, as any other contract is bound to have very poor matchpoint equity.

If partner has K instead of K he could bid 4NT (... 3NT-4mi-4NT should always be natural in these situations). That will be ok hopefully.

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East, for not subsiding in 3NT as the auction dictates that most of partner's values are in hearts and clubs. Imagine KJ AQJ and there's not much space left for the suits that East is interested in. Isn't a typical West hand some form of 3325? That makes slam even harder especially the spade situation and if West doesn't have the K and they lead a club, there's hardly time to unblock hearts.

 

I'm also in the 2 camp with West's cards. Even at matchpoints, 1NT is going a little far for me, what's wrong with a really good club suit to show that we may never be able to do so if we don't bid it now?

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As much as 23% for 5+1 is a miracle.

Must have been +2 if I understand the OP correctly.

From the OP:

 

620 was outscored by 920 660 and even a couple 640 for 23%. Who's to blame?

The syntax is not 100% clear but I think the "for 23%" applies back to the 620, which would be 5m+1.

 

The greater question is how 920 and 620 are scoring on the same board ...

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50%-50%. West misbid his/her hand by not rebidding the 6-card suit earlier, and not raising 5 and East kinda showed a weaker hand than s/he by bidding 5 only (although the suit quality might be to blame...).
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I would have rebid 2 with west, I am not opposed to a 1NT rebid with 6 clubs, but with that strong of a suit, I do not like it. I agree with West's bidding after that. I think that East can bid 6 after 5 especially at MPs. That being said, 6 is not laydown or anything, perhaps 3/4NT is the best place to be (although that could go down on a bad day too).

 

I am jealous that you think 23% is a bottom...look at a few of my scores and a 23% won't seem that bad.

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I don't like most of what west did. Firstly I would open 1NT which would have made it very easy to reach 6. But far worse is his last two bids, when was he ever going to feel like supporting diamonds? For example over 3 west should have bid 4, then 4 by east and you are on your way.

 

Edit: I miscounted as 14 so I wouldn't open 1NT after all.

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how many of you think 5♣ is a forward move towards 6♦?

 

4 = slam try in .

 

After that : 4NT = bad hand for slam, signoff; 4/4/5 = cuebids, forward going.

 

This is how we play those situations.

I think the blame is with E. He has easy 6 after 5 bid, especially at MP's. For all W knows we may be missing control (AKxx xx AQxxxx K).

 

I guess it's system choice but I don't like hiding 6card suits in 2nd round of bidding.

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I'd blame the pair : if you cannot stop in 4NT after 4, you don't want to languish in 5 at pairs. 5 making is not going to score much in average. Somebody has got to bid a probably bad 6 (West or East or both :P ) to save the board.
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