JavaBean Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 You deal, all white at a BBO IMP-pairs table, and open 1NT (weak, but I doubt it matters). Partner transfers to spades, and your RHO jumps to 4♥. Partner balances with 5NT: what does it mean? On the actual hand, you held ♠A8 ♥KJ72 ♦Q76 ♣AT92. If you're interested in secondary questions, (a) would you have doubled 4♥; (b) what do you call now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 Pick a slam - probably 5=0=4=4. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 On the actual hand, you held ♠A8 ♥KJ72 ♦Q76 ♣AT92. If you're interested in secondary questions, (a) would you have doubled 4♥; (:) what do you call now? Only if the double showed the fewest spades, super heart defense behind the bidder, and an appreciation that partner might have to make a problematic rebid. If partner still bid 5NT, I wouldn't punish him; just bid 6C. But I would feel more comfortable that I had shown my hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 In my metha its grand slam force, but it makes no sense at all so I'd lead towards pick a slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 Agree with Phil. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 I would have doubled 4♥. Seems like we have 4 tricks in our own hand + whatever partner can contribute. My ♥7 could even be promoted too! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mcphee Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 Time to bid 6C, I think partner is 5-0-4-4 and hope it makes. I would have dbled 4H. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 I agree with Phil that it is "pick a slam" but I don't see why it's necessarily 5-0-4-4. I think a lot of slam-going hands with only five spades would bid this way (i.e. 5233, 51(43), etc). Introducing a minor suit at the five or six-level here sounds 5-5 to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 dbl 4♥ and pick a slam. 6♣ now Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 I agree with Phil that it is "pick a slam" but I don't see why it's necessarily 5-0-4-4. I think a lot of slam-going hands with only five spades would bid this way (i.e. 5233, 51(43), etc). Introducing a minor suit at the five or six-level here sounds 5-5 to me. Agree with 51(34). 5233? Are you sitting for a Moysian here? I would also think 5♥ instead of 5N would have some utility - GSF maybe? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 I would double 4H as it makes no sense for me that the double would mean anything other than: ....fewest spades, super heart defense behind the bidder, and an appreciation that partner might have to make a problematic rebid. :P Having not made the (obvious?) double, I have to put myself in partner's shoes, who may be trying to determine what to do now with: AQxxx, x, AKxx, KQx. I don't know what exactly 5H would have meant instead of 5N, but I think it is the 5044 hand, though, so 5N is more likely something else. I am more inclined I think to bid 6NT in this auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
raist Posted May 9, 2010 Report Share Posted May 9, 2010 i think it can never be GSF because transferring at the 2 level only promises 5 cards(unless only INV. but clearly here partner is more than INV) so with that in mind, partner does not know whether there is a fit without a gauranteed fit, there can be no GSF, RKC etc so it should be some form of pick a slam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted May 9, 2010 Report Share Posted May 9, 2010 i think it can never be GSF because transferring at the 2 level only promises 5 cards(unless only INV. but clearly here partner is more than INV) so with that in mind, partner does not know whether there is a fit There's no prohibition on responder having more than five cards in his suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
campboy Posted May 9, 2010 Report Share Posted May 9, 2010 There are certainly hands where partner needs to bid 5NT for pick-a-slam; if he wants me to choose between 6♠ and 7♠ he can bid 6♥. My priorities here would be i) 6♠ with 3+; ii) 6m with 5; iii) 6NT with a good stop; iv) 6m with 4. So I would go for 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted May 9, 2010 Report Share Posted May 9, 2010 You deal, all white at a BBO IMP-pairs table, and open 1NT (weak, but I doubt it matters). Partner transfers to spades, and your RHO jumps to 4♥. Partner balances with 5NT: what does it mean? On the actual hand, you held ♠ A8 ♥ KJ72 ♦ Q76 ♣ AT92. If you're interested in secondary questions, (a) would you have doubled 4♥; (B) what do you call now? dbl 4♥ and pick a slam. 6♣ now Agree with jjbrr; 6♣ = 10. 6N = 8. I would be frightened that, having failed to double 4♥, partner may place me with five ♣. However, occasionally, a Moysian fit may be a triumph eg partner has♠ Kxxxx ♥ x ♦ AKJx ♣ KQJ :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted May 9, 2010 Report Share Posted May 9, 2010 I would also think 5♥ instead of 5N would have some utility - GSF maybe? Exclusion better than GSF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdeegan Posted May 12, 2010 Report Share Posted May 12, 2010 B) Can't believe you didn't double 4♥. Is there ever going to be any better hand for that bid? Now I think you have to bid 6NT - after all, you do have second round ♥ control. 6♠ is out, and 6♣ might mislead partner into thinking you had a real club suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
raist Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 i think it can never be GSF because transferring at the 2 level only promises 5 cards(unless only INV. but clearly here partner is more than INV) so with that in mind, partner does not know whether there is a fit There's no prohibition on responder having more than five cards in his suit. if partner had more than 5, he would have transferred at the 4 level before bidding 5N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 Pick a slam. I don't think he needs to be 5-0-4-4. Just 5♠ - 4minor is enough if he is willing to play 6NT if we don't find a fit. I guess he can even bid that way with 5♠-3-3-2 and very strong hand if he doesn't want to lose ♠ slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JavaBean Posted May 21, 2010 Author Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 At the table, partner was pushing a bit, with ♠JT543 ♥- ♦AKJ5 ♣KQ53. 6♣ is clearly the best slam, and can be made on the layout, but no slam is terribly good. Any final thoughts on the auction? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 Final thoughts: double 4H. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 Final thoughts: double 4H. I agree.Probably minor suit slam will be good if we find 5m in opener's hand. Unfortunately both 4-4 minor suit slam and especially 5-3 ♠ slam doesn't looks too good. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 At the table, partner was pushing a bit, with ♠JT543 ♥- ♦AKJ5 ♣KQ53. 6♣ is clearly the best slam, and can be made on the layout, but no slam is terribly good. Any final thoughts on the auction? partner forced to slam opposite a weak NT with this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 I suspect that partner inferred that we probably didn't have much in hearts, since we didn't make the obvious double. While I don't think much of 5N even then, the truth is the pass of 4♥ was so bad that opener is wearing most of the blame for anything that goes wrong thereafter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 21, 2010 Report Share Posted May 21, 2010 Sure double 4H but 5N is a serious overbid. 5440 gets overbid a lot. Are we really doubling 4H on Axxx / Kxxx? (No) The transfer promises nothing - and 4H can be very strong, so we need to be able to beat this in our own hand. At best, the pass of 4H only contributed to the result. It was not the cause. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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