blackshoe Posted May 5, 2010 Report Share Posted May 5, 2010 This has gone beyond absurd. The law says what it says, and what it says is that the TD shall rule that the lead out of turn was legally accepted, and trick 13 goes to the defenders. If you don't like the law, lobby for a change - but do it, if you're going to do it on IBLF, in the proper forum. Any more discussion of that subject in this thread, and I will lock the thread. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 5, 2010 Report Share Posted May 5, 2010 Lol I requested that in my first post! But apologies for my role in ruining the thread that apparently should have had exactly one reply since there was nothing else to say beyond west is allowed to accept the lead out of turn. Btw will you apologize for your role or only scold others for theirs?There is no duty on the lawmakers or the director to protect a player from his own mistakes. Nor, IMO, should there be.Ah never mind I see now. You can post about not changing laws and regulations, just not about changing laws and regulations. That should make for some good one-sided discussion. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 5, 2010 Report Share Posted May 5, 2010 Oh, sure, Josh, excuse me for contributing to the BS in this thread. Now like I said, if you don't have something constructive to say about the legal case here, don't say anything. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PeterAlan Posted May 6, 2010 Report Share Posted May 6, 2010 It certainly seems clear that if a lead out of turn has taken place then declarer has no recourse under Law 53. I'm not advocating the following position (which is not trick 13 specific either), but there does seem to be at least a point worth considering, namely what constitutes a lead out of turn from dummy. More than anything, it seems to be just another bit of the laws that could be clarified. Under Laws 45B & 46B is it clear that a valid lead has taken place at all? 45B: Declarer plays a card from dummy by naming the card ... So if declarer had called "diamond 7" it's clearly a call for the specific card, which is in dummy, and it's therefore been led. But the call is not complete, so has there been a lead? 46B: In case of an incomplete or erroneous call by declarer of the card to be played from dummy, ... Now declarer could advance the argument that 46B governs the case where "the card" was indeed "to be played from dummy", but that that's not the case here (or not without somewhat circular logic). So has the diamond in fact been played? Declarer's position would be that 46B is merely there to resolve ambiguities over the card specified, but not to resolve the issue of whether a lead has taken place at all. A separate but related matter is to consider what would happen, assuming 46B is in point, if the declarer had named any other suit (without a rank; say "heart"): 46B4: If declarer calls a card which is not in dummy the call is void and declarer may designate any legal card. Is everyone now confident that the declarer is nevertheless obliged to lead from dummy in these circumstances, when the call "is void"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 6, 2010 Report Share Posted May 6, 2010 It certainly seems clear that if a lead out of turn has taken place then declarer has no recourse under Law 53. I'm not advocating the following position (which is not trick 13 specific either), but there does seem to be at least a point worth considering, namely what constitutes a lead out of turn from dummy. More than anything, it seems to be just another bit of the laws that could be clarified. Under Laws 45B & 46B is it clear that a valid lead has taken place at all? 45B: Declarer plays a card from dummy by naming the card ... So if declarer had called "diamond 7" it's clearly a call for the specific card, which is in dummy, and it's therefore been led. But the call is not complete, so has there been a lead? 46B: In case of an incomplete or erroneous call by declarer of the card to be played from dummy, ... Now declarer could advance the argument that 46B governs the case where "the card" was indeed "to be played from dummy", but that that's not the case here (or not without somewhat circular logic). So has the diamond in fact been played? Declarer's position would be that 46B is merely there to resolve ambiguities over the card specified, but not to resolve the issue of whether a lead has taken place at all. A separate but related matter is to consider what would happen, assuming 46B is in point, if the declarer had named any other suit (without a rank; say "heart"): 46B4: If declarer calls a card which is not in dummy the call is void and declarer may designate any legal card. Is everyone now confident that the declarer is nevertheless obliged to lead from dummy in these circumstances, when the call "is void"? If Declarer calls a card from Dummy and the called card can be identified with the aid of Laws 45B, 45C and/or 46 then that card has been played. If no such card can be identified in Dummy then the call is void (Law 46B4), consequently if the play should have been from declarer's own hand he must be allowed to play from his own hand and not be bound by his void attempt to play a card from Dummy. One example of this last possibility that I have experienced more than once is Declarer naming a card from his own hand apparently to be called from Dummy. I assume further comments will be superfluous? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PeterAlan Posted May 6, 2010 Report Share Posted May 6, 2010 pran, your post starts "If Declarer calls a card from Dummy ..." The question is: HAS declarer called a card from dummy? - which was the point of my remarks. Your answer does not address that question, and I don't see that further comment is necessarily superfluous. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted May 6, 2010 Report Share Posted May 6, 2010 Are you saying that for the purpose of deciding whether he playe a card from dummy it matters whether he says "Play the top diamond" or "Play the ace of diamonds"? That just seems ridiculous. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 6, 2010 Report Share Posted May 6, 2010 Take a look at Law 45C4a. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 pran, your post starts "If Declarer calls a card from Dummy ..." The question is: HAS declarer called a card from dummy? - which was the point of my remarks. Your answer does not address that question, and I don't see that further comment is necessarily superfluous.Sorry? Quote from OP: Declarer calls for a club, and wins in her hand with the Ace. She then says "diamond". According to Law 46B2 this sounds to me like a call for the Diamond now remaining in Dummy. (If declarer designates a suit but not a rank he is deemed to have called the lowest card of the suit indicated.) On second thoughts: If Declarer now claims that she did not say "diamond" for the purpose of calling that card from Dummy then I shall want to know why she said "diamond". I have a big problem identifying any other purpose. (OP did not indicate any such possibility.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
shyams Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Can anyone, esp. the law experts, explain why Law 53A begins with "Any lead faced out of turn may be treated as a correct lead" instead of "... played out of turn ..." Is there a distinction? Is there a phase/gap between a (potentially erroneous) designation of a card and the "facing" of it? Just curious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Because if the lead is not faced (opening lead, for example), the player is just told to put the card back in his hand. It has nothing to do with designation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoAnneM Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Or, maybe this scenario might come up, declarer is in his hand and knows his card is a loser so he calls for the card in dummy which is good, and the opponents don't notice. But then later they overhear declarer bragging to his partner about the coup he pulled off...... Or maybe they do notice, can Director ask declarer if it was done on purpose? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Director can ask anything he likes, but he'd be wise not to imply that declarer cheated unless he already has pretty damning evidence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Director can ask anything he likes, but he'd be wise not to imply that declarer cheated unless he already has pretty damning evidence. I don't believe the question implies anything. Who knows, maybe an ignorant declarer who doesn't know anything about the laws or is a novice etc. thought that was ok to do and would say yes I did it on purpose! But obviously this is situational and you would really have to be there and see how the declarer is acting and what he was saying to judge whether or not to ask this particular question. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 If I am called to adjudicate a situation where declarer has led from the wrong hand, I will simply rule on that irregularity. If declarer lets slip that he was trying to pull a fast one, I'll deal with that — but it would not occur to me to routinely ask "did you do that on purpose?" If one player accuses another of deliberately committing an infraction, I will ask him what evidence he has of that — and if I consider the evidence inadequate to support such an accusation, I will explain to the player why he should not jump to such a conclusion, and in particular why he should not voice his accusation (see, for one thing, Law 74A2). If there is adequate evidence of such a deliberate violation, I will deal with it — but that would be very rare, IME. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 If there is adequate evidence of such a deliberate violation, I will deal with it — but that would be very rare, IME. Of course there won't be evidence if you don't try to find out? Anyway just to (re)clarify, I didn't say ask "routinely", I said judge whether or not to ask on a case by case basis. I suspect I would not ask a fair amount more often than I would ask. But if I were to ask then the player should not take offense, it's an investigation not an accusation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Why is everyone making this straw-man argument? There is nothing wrong with following the law, I have said it's the law itself I don't like. Disagree on that opinion if you like but rhetorical questions about what is wrong with EW following the law are pointless. I would like to hear; if Law 53 should not apply to lead out of turn to trick 13, why not also to trick 12 (or even to trick 11, or to earlier tricks)? It's not without precedence. See the laws on revokes... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 The D7 is a LOOT accepted by W. The D7 stands and play to the trick progresses as if the D7 was a proper lead. L53A.Declarer's holding is irrelevant. L47F2. An interesting thought occured to me. Consider the following hypothetical situation at trick 13: What if declarer thought that the card in his hand was a loser (when it actually is a winner) and the the card in dummy a winner (when it actually isn't), and try to lead out of turn from dummy? There is one card left. There are no mistakes left to be made. Yes there are - the mistake that was in fact made in the original post. This ploy has a fair chance of success aganst opponents who are not in contention. If there were no law against it, there would be a greater incentive to try it. Worse -- were there no law against it, it would be quite ethical to try it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Someone tell me why I read this thread? Post one: question asked. Post two: question answered. Posts three to forty-two: ????? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 To add post 43? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted May 7, 2010 Report Share Posted May 7, 2010 Just another case of the immense confusion that some people experience when trying to read about more than one related topic in but a single thread. Although the same people rarely mind posting an off-topic reply themselves. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoAnneM Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 I think of threads as conversations, which I assume you carry on with people or groups of people. Conversations wander or progress. I don't think it is unusual at all. If you only talk to people in one word questions and answers then I guess you are right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 Why is everyone making this straw-man argument? There is nothing wrong with following the law, I have said it's the law itself I don't like. Disagree on that opinion if you like but rhetorical questions about what is wrong with EW following the law are pointless. I would like to hear; if Law 53 should not apply to lead out of turn to trick 13, why not also to trick 12 (or even to trick 11, or to earlier tricks)? It's not without precedence. See the laws on revokes... TYP. Worst beer attempt EVER! By the way, I don't have a problem with the current law nor the ruling. Bridge does require the ability to focus for 13 tricks. Or at least, being able to claim correctly. Who knows? I'll bet the declarer had lost their way and thought the beer was good. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 Of course there won't be evidence if you don't try to find out? Something may come up which leads me to investigate the question, but I'm not going on any witch hunts. :) Anyway just to (re)clarify, I didn't say ask "routinely", I said judge whether or not to ask on a case by case basis. I suspect I would not ask a fair amount more often than I would ask. But if I were to ask then the player should not take offense, it's an investigation not an accusation. All true. :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pig Trader Posted May 8, 2010 Report Share Posted May 8, 2010 If you don't like the law, lobby for a change - but do it, if you're going to do it on IBLF, in the proper forum. Okey doke. Done! Barrie :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.