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Missed cold 6C


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[hv=d=w&v=n&n=shq9xxdkqjxcqtxxx&s=stxxxhkjtdacakjxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

(pass) - pass - (1) - X

(1) - 2 - (2) - 3

(3) - 5 - all pass

 

Not good. ;)

Generally looks like you can blame E&W for obscuring the lack of wasted values in the suit and obscuring the value of the cards. Possibly N could have Xed the 3 call and Qbid the shortage but the latter looks like an overbid with apparent massive wastage. Possibly S could have envisioned N's shortage but he has a difficult time as he sees a possible and up to two losers.

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Usually North over evaluates the void and South overevaluates Txxx.

 

What is wrong with 4 over 3?

 

I still bid 6 with South. Even with a stiff spade, along with A / Q or 5 pieces is enough and this isn't close to a 2 call. Come to think of it, North has some serious diamond duplication and its still cold.

 

South 70% / North 30% - and I'm probably being nice to South.

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Yeh, I think South needs some vision on this one. It is hard to construct a North hand, after the cue and club fit, which doesn't have a good play for 6.

 

Am not good with numbers, but after careful calculation, 100% to South.

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I sympathize with N-S, whose bidding may have relied a bit too much on the opps, who competed in their 10 high 8 card fit rather than their AKQJ 9 card fit.

 

However, the jump to 5 should have reassured S that N had a GOOD cuebid. It is difficult to picture any hand on which the slam would be worse than a finesse for the heart Q, with RHO odds on favourite to have that card.

 

I also blame N for not bidding 4 which was, essentially, a 'free' cue on the way to slam. Was N worried that S would misconstrue the sequence, thinking that W may have psyched? I don't think so: the way to reveal the psyche was to double 1. Was N worried about the diamond wastage? He shouldn't be: KQJx is a good holding: far better than KQxx or KJxx. And he has that wonderful 5th trump and is protected by his initial pass.

 

I assign the blame 70% to S and 30% to N, but think that really it was unlucky that both partners swung low on the same hand.

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I also blame N for not bidding 4 which was, essentially, a 'free' cue on the way to slam. Was N worried that S would misconstrue the sequence, thinking that W may have psyched? I don't think so: the way to reveal the psyche was to double 1. Was N worried about the diamond wastage? He shouldn't be: KQJx is a good holding: far better than KQxx or KJxx. And he has that wonderful 5th trump and is protected by his initial pass.

I was north, and I considered 4 of course. I wasn't worried that partner would misunderstand. As you say, if I have spades I start with a double (or bid spades directly after 1).

 

But I was worried that 4 would be an overbid. It's only "free" to the extend that partner is expected to respect it when I conduct a very strong sequence. Or we will suffer on many stronger hands where partner won't take appropriate action. I simply thought that missing AK AK A was too much, but I might be wrong.

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Yeah I really really don't like a 4S bid, you have KQJx of diamonds which is looking like garbage to you at that point, and that is pretty much your whole hand. It's not like the way you bid it showed a yarb. I think your partner had an easy 6C bid over 5C, how can you not have the ace of hearts or a spade void for your bidding? You were a passed hand and then cuebid and jumped to game, and it is really unlikely you have all the diamond cards (your actual hand not withstanding) after the 3D bid.
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As a passed hand I doubt that 4 is an overbid for me desptie the horrible diamonds. I have a 5. club and a chicane not just a singleton.

 

As south I had need to know better what 2 had shown and I may had gambled 6 club. But otoh, if partner had 2425 everybody had blamed me for overbidding and told me that with such short spades as he actually holds, partner had bid 4 . :)

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What would 3 mean directly over 1 ?

 

To me it would suggest a near openr, , and a void . By a passed hand this would seem ideal.

2, 3 and 4 are all natural bids for us.

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As south I had need to know better what 2 had shown and I may had gambled 6 club.

2 is the only available cuebid, so it covers all strongish hands with no clear direction. Not sure if this can be clarified further.

 

Btw an issue that nobody has touched is - what about hearts? Can we rule out that south has 4 hearts when bidding 3? In priciple the answer must be no. Based on my hand it seemed unlikely that he would have 4 hearts and anyway I decided to bid what I felt was the value bid in support of clubs. Thoughts?

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I also blame N for not bidding 4 which was, essentially, a 'free' cue on the way to slam. Was N worried that S would misconstrue the sequence, thinking that W may have psyched? I don't think so: the way to reveal the psyche was to double 1. Was N worried about the diamond wastage? He shouldn't be: KQJx is a good holding: far better than KQxx or KJxx. And he has that wonderful 5th trump and is protected by his initial pass.

I was north, and I considered 4 of course. I wasn't worried that partner would misunderstand. As you say, if I have spades I start with a double (or bid spades directly after 1).

 

But I was worried that 4 would be an overbid. It's only "free" to the extend that partner is expected to respect it when I conduct a very strong sequence. Or we will suffer on many stronger hands where partner won't take appropriate action. I simply thought that missing AK AK A was too much, but I might be wrong.

you are a passed hand, so he won't/shouldn't expect more high card than you promised. The key was to allow him to evaluate his spade wastage, or, as in this case, lack of wastage. And as I wrote before, I really don't see KQJx as really bad diamonds. Give partner AJx x in the reds and we see that the diamond suit avoids all heart issues.

 

However, I placed most of the resonsibility on your partner since 4 is far from clear, imo, and it is tough to construct a hand for your actual sequence that doesn't give a good play for slam.

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