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two strategies:

 

1. cash ace cash king

2. cash king small to jack

 

1 wins over 2 when lho has Qx (or all 6 cards). 2 never wins over 1.

Wrong!

 

Two cases are:

 

1) Cash A, Cash K, small to J

2) Small to 9, Cash K, small to J

 

If you check all the combos it looks like these 2 lines are a wash (both losing to 11 cases), but what you have to figure is things like

 

with (2) you lose to Qxx offside, 6 cases, which doesn't push with Q10xx offside that you pick up with (2) because each Qxx is more likely than Q10xx, etc.

 

But anyway I agree with these guys line 1 is best.

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Two cases are:

 

1) Cash A, Cash K, small to J

2) Small to 9, Cash K, small to J

I came up with:

 

(1) A, K, then small to J

(2) small to 9, K, then small to J

(3) small to 9, K, then A

 

I think (3) is better than (2) (doesn't lose to Qxx with East), so I rejected (2).

 

It looks to me as if:

 

(1) loses to Q10xx (9.6%) and Q10xxx (4.8%) with East

(3) loses to Qxxx (6.4%) and Qxxxx (1.2%) with East

 

so (3) succeeds 92% of the time, (1) 86% of the time. Two books give (1) as the correct answer.

 

As I said, I'm doing something wrong, either I've missed some losing card distributions, or my percentages are incorrect.

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Two cases are:

 

1) Cash A, Cash K, small to J

2) Small to 9, Cash K, small to J

I came up with:

 

(1) A, K, then small to J

(2) small to 9, K, then small to J

(3) small to 9, K, then A

 

I think (3) is better than (2) (doesn't lose to Qxx with East), so I rejected (2).

 

It looks to me as if:

 

(1) loses to Q10xx (9.6%) and Q10xxx (4.8%) with East

(3) loses to Qxxx (6.4%) and Qxxxx (1.2%) with East

 

so (3) succeeds 92% of the time, (1) 86% of the time. Two books give (1) as the correct answer.

 

As I said, I'm doing something wrong, either I've missed some losing card distributions, or my percentages are incorrect.

Line 3 loses to: Q10xx onside (6), 10x under the J (4), stiff 10 under the J (1)

 

Line 1 loses to: Q10xx offside (6), Q10xxx offside (4), all offside (1)

 

p(10x) > p(Q10xxx) and p(stiff 10) > p(all offside) so this doesn't seem close.

 

edit: i'm dumb cash the ace first not the K, so i don't even lose to all offside (not like it makes a big difference)

 

 

 

but yeah you are forgetting:

 

.........AJ43

Q10xx........xx

.........K92

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K92 - AJ43

 

Could someone please tell me how to give myself the best chance of making three tricks in this suit. (My answer is at odds with the textbooks, so I must be doing something wrong.)

From the chart below you can see the first column is the winner(cash AK;low to J) with the 3rd column slightly worse and the second column last. You must remember that 3-3>4-2>5-1>6-0; i.e. probability of any single 3-3 is higher than any single 4-2; and column 1 lost to six 4-2 and four 5-1 while column 3 lost to ten 4-2 and column 2 lost to ten 4-2 and one 5-1.

 

RHO---LHO---cash KA; low to J--- low to 9; cash KA---cash K;low to 9;cash A

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