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On the auction

 

1-1

1-?

 

I play XYZ, such that 2 forces 2 by opener, usually to show an invitational hand or to play 2 (2 would show a GF hand). My question is whether 2 really needs to force 2?

 

With a very distributional hand and lots of diamonds, maybe something like this thread with 4x7x it's not like you're afraid of being passed in 2 (and you'll make 3 with a fit). Especially in standard where opener could still have a pretty big hand, I could see various possibilities:

 

after 2:

 

2 catchall

2 strong hand with 4351 shape, prefering to play 2 over 2 opposite weak partner

2 strong hand with 5x6x shape

2N 18-19 bal and we always rebid 1 with four :lol:

3 distributional hand with very good diamonds (and 4 spades)

 

What do you think? Depending on how you play XYZ, I don't think there are any weak hands in the 2 relay except those that want to get out in 2 (3 direct would be the weak x4x6). As such, it seems like showing strong distributional hands with diamonds can't get you in too much trouble opposite an invite or a diamond signoff, although you'd want to discuss continuations after opener's various relay breaks.

 

Thoughts? Do you already do this?

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I play that

 

1-1 (actually 1 transfer)

1-2

3

 

doesn't show extras, but no real tolerance for diamonds, this is the only sequence where it doesn't show extras for us, not sure if its standard.

I would have thought this shows extras and I'm not sure I like your treatment so much. It seems there are more hands that need to be able to show extra strength than the 4207 minimum hands that need to bid 3

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Right, there are several hand types where you can't risk partner passing 2.

 

Its especially an issue starting with 1 - 1 - 1 - 2. Picture opener with a good 4-6/7 for instance.

 

After 1 - 1 - 1 - 2, I'm not sure I'd ever want to bid 2 on any 4=3=0=6. With stronger hands I'd want to take some kind of forward going action as with a really good 4=0=4=5.

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