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Would you bypass your spade suit here?


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[hv=d=n&v=b&s=sj1083hadk108753c106]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

Playing SA in a f2f MP tournament, partner opens 1. Do you respond 1 hoping to find a fit there? Or do you respond 1NT hoping your partner's 2nd suit is clubs and not spades, thus enabling you to get your diamonds mentioned? Is this an odds decision?

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I agree with josh...but both of us are, I suspect, influenced by methods.

 

2way nmf allows an easy 2 puppet over 1N, while BART removes (for me) the ability to get to 2 if I respond 1N and he bids 2.

 

So I am endplayed into 1 regardless of the merits of that call, based on my methods...and they are fairly common methods, I think. BART, maybe not so much, but the advantage of 2way is enough for me even if I didn't use BART.

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1 NT.

 

If partner had answered 1 NT to 1 I would like to play 2 .

If partner had answered 2 to 1 , I quite likely want to play 2.

 

So, if we are in the part score zone, our choice mostly matters if partner has a two suiter in hearts with a black suit. I bet that a two sutier in clubs is much more likely, so 1 N will win more often then 1.

 

And if we are in the game zone, we will still find 4 , so that is no loss either.

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the advantage of 2way is enough for me even if I didn't use BART.

What are the advantages? I realise that for a casual partnership it is convenient to know which auctions are game forcing and which are not; but for a serious partnership, why do you think it is better to use two bids to check back?

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the advantage of 2way is enough for me even if I didn't use BART.

What are the advantages? I realise that for a casual partnership it is convenient to know which auctions are game forcing and which are not; but for a serious partnership, why do you think it is better to use two bids to check back?

It is a mistake to think of 2-way as "2 ways to check back". The 2 acts as a puppet to 2 and thus gives you a sign off in a minor common on hands like this if partner opens 1 or 1 and rebids 1nt over our 1. Also, it means that you have more forcing auctions available, which lets you partition them more effectively. Also, it means on many invitational sequences you don't leak information as you ask about a specific feature that you care about, rather than ask in general and have partner leak information.

 

In my mind it is a little like saying "why bother with transfers, I mean in some partnerships right siding a contract is better, but that isn't such a big deal is it?". Well the advantages to transfers are more than just right siding, they are also the many continuations. 2way nmf is a lot more than just 2 ways to check back!

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[hv=d=n&v=b&s=sj1083hadk108753c106]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

Playing SA in a f2f MP tournament, partner opens 1. Do you respond 1 hoping to find a fit there? Or do you respond 1NT hoping your partner's 2nd suit is clubs and not spades, thus enabling you to get your diamonds mentioned? Is this an odds decision?

1. I may be sorry after 2 rebid, but even then 2 may be a better MP contract than 2.

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Also, it means on many invitational sequences you don't leak information as you ask about a specific feature that you care about, rather than ask in general and have partner leak information.

Also you can stop lower sometimes in invitational sequences, ie you can stop in 2M on a 5-2 or 5-3 fit instead of playing 2NT or 3M on some hands, which granted is a small victory but a victory nonetheless.

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Does the fact that OP specified that we are playing SA imply that we are not playing Bart or 2way new-minor forcing? I don't play either of them, so I don't honestly know when they apply.

No. I play 2 way nmf in 2 different SA partnerships. I don't play BART and am not that familiar with it, however, I also believe that it is an add on that works in a SA or 2/1 or whatever equally well.

 

SA doesn't imply that you are playing either of these conventions, obviously, but it also doesn't imply that you aren't playing them either.

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Nitpicking:

 

1- It's not "BART", it's "Bart". Someone's name, not an acronym. "BART" the acronym is the SF Bay area commuter rail system.

 

2 - Since when did Bart have anything to do with this sequence whatsoever?? I thought Bart applied only to 1-1nt-2-?, the use of 2 here artificially to show hearts or some other hand types.

 

Using 1-1-2 artificially I thought was called "Cole".

 

FWIW I prefer 1nt on this hand.

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2 - Since when did Bart have anything to do with this sequence whatsoever?? I thought Bart applied only to 1-1nt-2-?, the use of 2 here artificially to show hearts or some other hand types.

I don't know about standard Bart, but many people play the sequence

 

1H-1N

2C-2D

 

with 2D artificial, not a weak signoff in diamonds. If you play this, then obviously 1N is silly since you will never get to sign off in diamonds anyway, short of the 3 level.

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[hv=d=n&v=b&s=sj1083hadk108753c106]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]My partner rebid 2, so I reluctantly gave pref with 2. Partner passed with

KQ

KJ1096

J6

QJ87

and managed to escape the kiss of death -200, due to a defensive slip and scored -100. Somewhat surprisingly 2NT= is the par contract

 

Reflecting on the bidding during the play, I think Codo says it all:

 

1 NT.

 

If partner had answered 1 NT to 1 I would like to play 2 .

If partner had answered 2 to 1 , I quite likely want to play 2.

 

So, if we are in the part score zone,  our choice  mostly matters if partner has a two suiter in hearts with a black suit. I bet that a two sutier in clubs is much more likely, so 1 N will win more often then 1.

 

And if we are in the game zone, we will still find 4 , so that is no loss either.

 

I would not dream of playing Bart and neither would any of my partners. I am quite enthusiatic about 2-way check back but only one f2f partner has been interested and my partner on the day was not. So I believe the odds favour 1NT as my response. It is ironic that had I been playing 2wnmf, then the odds would swing back to responding 1.

 

At a f2f MP club tourney last night, I held:

AQ42

6

K8752

652

 

Playing acol my partner opened 1. This time I think the odds overwhelmingly favour a response of 1, especially since 1 is opened with 44 in the majors 15-19HCP. Partner rebid 2 which I passed. Partner turned up with:

J7

A10972

J3

AQ97

 

The opps cards were badly placed going 1 off for -100, scoring 21 out of 32.

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1) It doesn't always go 1H-1x-2C. Sometimes they overcall or partner will bid 1N or 2D or 2H or jump shift or bid 2N anyways.

 

2) Even if it does, partner sometimes has extra values and you would get past the 2 level anyways no matter what you did (if he is 6-4 you might play 3H instead of 2H though) so it doesn't matter in those cases.

 

3) Even when it does go 1H-1S-2C-2H-p instead of 1H-1N-2C-2D-p it is not the biggest disaster in the world. Sometimes it works out fine and partners hearts are really good, or sometimes partner has a diamond void or whatever.

 

We are just catering to such a small target at the expense of missing our 4-4 spade fit, or our good 4-3 spade fit every single time. It's really not worth it. If you made my hand weaker, or gave me much better diamonds, I'd be much happier to get with the program.

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Bart does not have anything to do with this.

 

Bart is:

1s=1nt

2c=etc///// is bart

 

 

 

This just sounds like the basic version of XYZ where after any

 

 

1x1y1z

2c forces 2d

so:

 

 

1h=1s

1nt(xyz)=2c(forces 2d)

2d(forced)=pass.

 

then pass shows long weak d or any other rebid is natural and invite.

----------------------

 

 

1h=1nt

2c=2d?

 

 

2d here may depend on what 2s or 3d would have meant here.

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