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control / to play?


kgr

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It is a suggestion to play a slam.

Instead of using 4th suit responder could have supported with 3 or 4.

He decided to go through the fourth suit before showing support so he has a very good hand. This is a general rule.

 

Can you show minimum support of hearts after a reverse (Ingberman or Lebensohl)?

In that case 3 would also be slammish en preferable because it leaves room for cuebidding.

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3 is forcing, using 4SF when you have a dorcing descriptive bid avaible is a very very bad idea.

 

On any eperienced partnership I Expect 4 to be a cuebid for clubs (unless your surname ends in exford and you play a insane convention). Maybe Frances plays this as a moysan suggestion to play but I doubt it.

 

One of my golden rules: never ask when you can show

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If 3H would have been forcing over 2H (which is consistent with 2NT as lebensohl) then 4H now is a cue for clubs.
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3 would have been forcing.

But 3 would show a 4c? Can 4 not be a 3c and a suggestion to play in 4-3?

I would never assume this undiscussed.

 

And I wouldn't even prefer it as an agreement, but if partner insisted.

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This was our not so successful bidding:

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sqjt43ht53da852cj&s=sa6hakq8dkca98632]133|200|[/hv]

1-1! (1=T-Walsh, transfer )

2-3 (2=reverse, denying 3c, 1 would have been 3c and forcing) (3=4SF)

4-4

4NT-5 (5=4 or 1)

6-All pass

 

4 was meant by partner as a proposal to play, I took it as -control for .

Maybe proposal to play is better?

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Would 2 by North be forcing? I think I would bid 2 regardless. Second choice 3NT. Or 2NT followed by 3NT (not sure what the difference is). Or 2NT intending to pass 3. Not sure what South would bid over 2NT, though.

 

3 really should be a descriptive bid as it otherwise takes up too much bidding space. North's hand is not suitable for 3 as he can't tolerate a 4 bid.

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the problem was the 3D bid. Since you already know you don't have a spade fit, you can use leben 2NT to deny 9 HCP, then land in 3NT. I would bet you can make it, even with the transportation issues. doubt the opps can double-dummy the defense, if there is a route to defeat.

 

Four Spades also works, if south bids 3S/2NT having already denied 3 of them.

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I guess after 3 opener will probably bid 3NT with a diamond stop or 3 with 3 cards. So the rebid of 4 should mean "I have none of those, thus a 6-4". In light of this, I think 4 makes more sense as proposal to play there, in the 4-3 fit.

 

Because the 4th suit seems to be in this case a tool to get to the STRAIN, not the level, if responder wanted to go club slamming he had the options to bid 3 (or even 4) instead.

 

Anyway, this is the sort of bid I would try to avoid without having had previous discussion. With the actual hand there was the alternative to bid 2, so I would have preferred that.

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the problem was the 3D bid.  Since you already know you don't have a spade fit, you can use leben 2NT to deny 9 HCP, then land in 3NT.  I would bet you can make it, even with the transportation issues.  doubt the opps can double-dummy the defense, if there is a route to defeat.

 

Four Spades also works, if south bids 3S/2NT having already denied 3 of them.

Most people play that, over reverses, lebensohl 2N followed by 3N shows a mild slam try. I would have bid 2, forcing 1 round, and then 3N.

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no they don't

excuse me, but what I should have said is that most of the people in my part of the world play it that way, I have no reference for the rest of the world other than these forums, where I have also seen that suggested as a treatment.

 

edited: I see you're from approximately my part of the world. Ask the better players in your area how they play it.

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Would 2 by North be forcing?
Yes
I think I would bid 2 regardless. Second choice 3NT. Or 2NT followed by 3NT (not sure what the difference is).
3NT is to play. 2NT followed by 3NT is slam try 13-14.
]Or 2NT intending to pass 3. Not sure what South would bid over 2NT, though.
I would bid 3, 4SF I think
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no they don't

excuse me, but what I should have said is that most of the people in my part of the world play it that way, I have no reference for the rest of the world other than these forums, where I have also seen that suggested as a treatment.

2NT..3NT is 13-14 for us.

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south is not close to 4 over 3, he should bid 3 or 3, he has 6 clubs, but they are awful, 3 bid its much better.

right (maybe 3 is best. The suit is good enough and less risks for misunderstanding. ...3 is also good to avoid 5-6 misunderstanding. Theoretically best I think)

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As the others have stated, a 2 rebid ( showing 5+cards ) by Responder (playing Lebensohl-- 2NT! here as the start of a sign-off) is forcing over a reverse.. It's close, but you just have enough to make that bid.

3 is also forcing and natural ( and not 4th suit forcing in the usual sense that it could be artificial -- 2S is enough to show 5 cards ) .... but Responder is not strong or shapely enough for a 3-level new suit rebid at this juncture.

 

1C - 1S

2H - 2S

3C - 3D

3NT

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I was responding to KQR's real auction. In that auction, 2S would no-longer show merely 5, but 6+, since opener denied 3 spades earlier. 2NT (less than 9 HCP) would not get a 3C rebid by opener, because his hand is too good. Thus, Opener can freely show his big hand and HX of spades by bidding 3S. That leads to a makable contract of 4S or 3NT.

 

You can keep your smug "ask the better players" remark to your self, Gibson.

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south is not close to 4 over 3, he should bid 3 or 3, he has 6 clubs, but they are awful, 3 bid its much better.

right (maybe 3 is best. The suit is good enough and less risks for misunderstanding. ...3 is also good to avoid 5-6 misunderstanding. Theoretically best I think)

Reading aquahombre I realice you play transfers over 1, 3 is mandatory then as he points out, south denied 3 spades and he has the best possible suppport now: Hx

 

Thx to the transfer you should land in 4. wich is the best spot.

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