Rossoneri Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 Bidding goes 1♥ by partner, 2♦ by you and now LHO comes in with 4♠. Partner now bids 4NT. What do you think he has? What do you think is the best treatment of this sequence? Edit: Forgot to add, playing SAYC. Would this change if it was Acol? What if it was 4 card majors with a 15-17 NT? Would it make any difference if you were playing 2/1 instead? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 I think it depend on your definition for double. If double is take out, you need (?) 4 Nt as natural.If double is cards, well, what do I know. Define 4 NT according to your wishes.IF double is penalty, 4 NT is a strong raise to 5 ♦. I would not define it as blackwood, but if this is easier for you, you can use it in the "common" way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mich-b Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 We play that 4NT in competition over RHO 4M bid, is takeout with 2 places to play, the specific suits depend on the preceding sequence.In your example I would expect opener to have either 6-4 in the rounded suits, or long ♥ with ♦ tolerance (6-3, maybe even 6-4 or 7-3). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rossoneri Posted March 9, 2010 Author Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 We play that 4NT in competition over RHO 4M bid, is takeout with 2 places to play, the specific suits depend on the preceding sequence.In your example I would expect opener to have either 6-4 in the minors, or long diamonds with ♥ tolerance (6-3, maybe even 6-4 or 7-3). Well, yes that was what partner meant (and I guessed it correctly at the table) but it does seem a bit weird after he has opened and I have made a 2/1? As compared to after 4N over a 4M opening. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 If playing Acol, you are clearly not in a forcing pass situation. This would mean that double would should not be strict penalty. In 2/1, pass is forcing so the standard meaning of dbl is penalty. In SAYC I am not sure but I think pass would be forcing. In any case I think 4NT is best played as two or three places to play. If pass is forcing, it would show a minimum since a strong hand would pass. If pass is not forcing, a slammish hand with hearts only could bid 4NT then 5♥, but that is confusing since if you bid 5♦ and p then 5♥ it shows hearts and clubs, not substantial extras. So it's easier if pass is forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pict Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 I would suppose 4NT showed interest in slam in diamonds or hearts and hoping to hear a club cue bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
babalu1997 Posted March 9, 2010 Report Share Posted March 9, 2010 i think pass forcing, dbl cooperative in either sa or 2/1, a 2 over 1 promises a rebid, make the rebid, dble if you can of course for the pass to be forcing your opening has to have 2 defensive tricks. but i can see those who open 11 pointers aceless balanced wonders who could not abide a forcing pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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