pretender Posted February 25, 2010 Report Share Posted February 25, 2010 I've encountered this example many times. Me GIB1x-1M2N-3M3N-4M GIB doesnt have a slam try, and in my experience always bids 4M over my 3N anyway. So why the 3M bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
arigreen Posted February 25, 2010 Report Share Posted February 25, 2010 GIB bids 3M any time it holds 6-cards in M and a gameforcing hand.2N promised 2 or 3 cards in M.Over 3N, GIB knows it has an 8-card fit in M, so by rule it now bids 4M. Perhaps this is not optimal, but it should work well in practice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.