sceptic Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 is 1 diamond pass 2 clubs a game force bid in 2/1? first person to answer correctly wins a prize (4 bottles of asti, winner collects prize) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulhar Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 I believe that 1D/2C is not game forcing in 2/1 without partnership agreement because of the lack of a forcing notrump over 1D. Many hands would be unbiddable if 2C were game forcing. My regular partner and I have had success playing 2C as game forcing. To do this, we have to play 1D-2NT (and 1C-2NT for consistency) as non-forcing, showing 11-12, and more importantly, 1D-3C as invitational, and certainly passable, showing long clubs (6 expected) and the strength for a traditional 2C response. Both these responses deny a four card major. (Yes, Ch., I know I'm stating the obvious again but it might not be obvious to everybody in this forum.) Without prior agreement, I would treat a 2C response to 1D the same way that you did before you played 2/1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 It's forcing to 4m. We want to be in 3NT, and perhaps 5m, but that's not sure yet. If 3NT is impossible, we might end up in 4m, sometimes in 5m. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bearmum Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 well............... only if you have agreed that with P - so then U HAVE to alert opps to that fact :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 I had always though it was only forcing to 2NT (limit+ values), untill I found it written somewhere over the net (think it was the bridgebase advanced system, althou not quite sure), still think playingit as naturalnon forcing makes more sense, just be careful that opener rebids 2♦ with minimum balanced hands, bidding 2NT with any 12-14 endplays responder in the bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted July 19, 2004 Report Share Posted July 19, 2004 the 'right' answer depends on who you are and what you and partner agreed... normally, 2C over 1D is a game force in 2/1... some do play it as forcing to 2nt or 4m rosenkrantz in his book 'bid to win, play for pleasure' recommends that *any* repeat of a 2/1 is to play, not gf... for example, 1S : 2H : 2S : 3H, tho there are a few exception auctions Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted July 20, 2004 Report Share Posted July 20, 2004 The only non-forcing auctions in my system are: 1♦-2♣-2NT showing 11-13 balanced and 1♦-2♣-2♦-3♣ The latter generally means that the 1♦ opener holds 4441/4450 shape, otherwise the opps are bidding ;) Paul Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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