PhantomSac Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 1N 2H2S 4C4D 5H 2H transfer, 4C splinter, 4D cue, 5H exclusion. Does the 5H bid imply a club void also (else why 4C?), or can responder splinter in a stiff with a side void, or are we just giving him room to have operated somehow with the 4C bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
karlson Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 I vote for giving him room to operate. Maybe he has a slam force opposite a diamond card, this seems like a fine sequence then. If he really has double void, GSF will still be available after a round of cuebidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 I'm with Karlson here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 sounds like partner has solid ♠! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdanno Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 I would just answer exclusion for hearts. Maybe partner bid this way with 0 hearts and 1 club to give us more room for a cuebid. Maybe he has ♣AKQ and wanted to see whether we have a diamond card (it's pretty much a 100% sure way to find out with that holding). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 I was thinking about ♣KQJ but what anyway, agree with cherdano Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
karlson Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 Well it only matters if we're looking at the ♣A, but make cherdano's example KQJ and it works fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.