campboy Posted February 3, 2010 Report Share Posted February 3, 2010 As this is MPs, my inclination if partner hesitates and bids is that he likely has a hand that would stretch and bid the game directly at IMPs, but he is being cautious at MPs. I feel like his hesitation would suggest bidding and that pass is my LA not suggested by the bidding. After all, though I have 14 hcp, I am 4-3-3-3 and aceless. If partner had not passed initially, I would agree that it is not clear whether he was deciding between 2NT and pass or between 2NT and 3NT, and that nothing is demonstrably suggested. As it is though, I don't see how he could have been considering 3NT. (anyway, agree that I would not be adjusting here as there is no damage) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wyman Posted February 3, 2010 Report Share Posted February 3, 2010 As this is MPs, my inclination if partner hesitates and bids is that he likely has a hand that would stretch and bid the game directly at IMPs, but he is being cautious at MPs. I feel like his hesitation would suggest bidding and that pass is my LA not suggested by the bidding. After all, though I have 14 hcp, I am 4-3-3-3 and aceless. If partner had not passed initially, I would agree that it is not clear whether he was deciding between 2NT and pass or between 2NT and 3NT, and that nothing is demonstrably suggested. As it is though, I don't see how he could have been considering 3NT. (anyway, agree that I would not be adjusting here as there is no damage) I am not sure how I overlooked both the initial pass and the discussion thereof in this thread. One of those days, I suppose... :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Pict Posted February 3, 2010 Report Share Posted February 3, 2010 As this is MPs, my inclination if partner hesitates and bids is that he likely has a hand that would stretch and bid the game directly at IMPs, but he is being cautious at MPs. I feel like his hesitation would suggest bidding and that pass is my LA not suggested by the bidding. After all, though I have 14 hcp, I am 4-3-3-3 and aceless. If partner had not passed initially, I would agree that it is not clear whether he was deciding between 2NT and pass or between 2NT and 3NT, and that nothing is demonstrably suggested. As it is though, I don't see how he could have been considering 3NT. (anyway, agree that I would not be adjusting here as there is no damage) I am not sure how I overlooked both the initial pass and the discussion thereof in this thread. One of those days, I suppose... :) Don't worry. You are a passed hand, but not debarred from a 12-count you didn't like, good 11-count , or the 10 count you have. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted February 3, 2010 Report Share Posted February 3, 2010 2. What happened at other tables is irrelevant. At this table declarer made nine tricks. If I want to adjust the score, I'd have to adjust to 3NT making, and that does more damage to the NOS. Must you assume that the defense would be the same if the opponents bid 3NT? Even at matchpoints, where you try to take the maximum number of tricks regardless of the contract, it's sometimes necessary to change strategies depending on whether you think the contract is normal or not. But the auction and level of the contract also create inferences that will affect the defense. I've seen plenty of travelers with lots of 3S+1 and 4S-1 on them. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted February 3, 2010 Report Share Posted February 3, 2010 Must you assume that the defense would be the same if the opponents bid 3NT? Even at matchpoints, where you try to take the maximum number of tricks regardless of the contract, it's sometimes necessary to change strategies depending on whether you think the contract is normal or not. But the auction and level of the contract also create inferences that will affect the defense. Maybe so, but absent an argument from the defenders that they would have defended differently, I'm going to assume they would not. And any such argument would have to be viewed with a grain of salt, after the hand is played. I've seen plenty of travelers with lots of 3S+1 and 4S-1 on them. So have I. So what? I say again: what happened at other tables is not relevant. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted February 4, 2010 Report Share Posted February 4, 2010 No split scores in ACBL, I believe."Split" scores, where the two sides get assigned different scores, are more common in the ACBL. "Weighted" scores, where each side gets a score which is a combination of percentages of different scores, are not legal in the ACBL. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted February 5, 2010 Report Share Posted February 5, 2010 Did anyone consider that the opener might have made his best ethical attempt in passing a hesitation invite? Maybe he missed the mark but given the defence, NOT! and I wouldn't fry him for it. Old school subtracts 1 point for that shape which makes pass and 3nt 50-50. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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