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I always respond the higher suit the first time in this situation. Since partner has shown length in the majors you're in a similar position to having two five card suits when partner has not shown major length. 'Bid four cards suits upwards' is not applicable here, especially since partner will not bid a four card spade suit over your one heart anyway.
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I always respond the higher suit the first time in this situation. Since partner has shown length in the majors you're in a similar position to having two five card suits when partner has not shown major length. 'Bid four cards suits upwards' is not applicable here, especially since partner will not bid a four card spade suit over your one heart anyway.

Me too.

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agree with Nigel. it's a very useful and somehow unintuitive concept. also if you bid a major then a minor, you promise 4-5. my bridge improved a lot by understanding these two simple rules.

 

BTW 2 promises a rebid for some people. Not sure which is best. Definitely GF is bad bad.

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good point. I never really realized that. ;) I always had the impression that you had to be 4- but now that i think about it 4-4 is of course also good. anyway doubler will pass the minor bid with 33 since advancer is often 4-5 but never 5-4.
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Just curious, if the auction went something like:

(1) X 1

3

 

and that went down a trick, would anyone be saying they would have responded 1 so they could stop lower after partner bids 1?

He wouldn't bid

  1 dbl pass 1

  pass 1

on a four-card suit, would he?.

 

The only hand-type that would both raise 1 to 3 and bid 1 over 1 is a hand with five spades that is too strong to overcall. I don't think it's a big problem to reach the three level opposite such a hand.

Edited by gnasher
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Just curious, if the auction went something like:

(1) X 1

3

 

and that went down a trick, would anyone be saying they would have responded 1 so they could stop lower after partner bids 1?

Why? Is the TOXer in the first auction going to pass my raise in the second? BTW I would probably be going down 2 in the first auction (incomplete since it did not include my 4 bid) :)

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Just curious, if the auction went something like:

(1) X 1

3

 

and that went down a trick, would anyone be saying they would have responded 1 so they could stop lower after partner bids 1?

Umm I doubt it. Bidding 1S on this auction is normal so that you can show both suits if partner cuebids, I don't think anyone is just saying it because of this particular hand.

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