karlson Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass? As a simple example, we had this auction yesterday: (2♦)-p-(p)-x(p)-p-(2♥)-p(p) Do you think doubler's pass is forcing? If yes, what is responder supposed to do with ♦KJTxx and out? If no, what should doubler do with a good hand but relatively bad hearts (I dunno, say AKxx Axx x AQJxx). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass? Definitely not Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass? Definitely not Do you mean that it's definitely not forcing, or you definitely don't have a [meta-]agreement about whether it's forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 Do you have a meta-agreement on when pass is forcing after a penalty pass? Definitely not Do you mean that it's definitely not forcing, or you definitely don't have a [meta-]agreement about whether it's forcing? I meant my meta agreement is that it is definitely not forcing heh. I would hate to have that agreement since I will pass t/o Xs with 6 reasonable cards in their suit and nothing (or at the 2+ level I'll pass with 5 reasonable cards of their suit and nothing). Of course usually I won't have nothing at all, but I would still need quite a good hand to want to be in a force, and at low levels I don't think there's that much to be gained from being in a force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 forcing when the pass was on a NT contract (even when the X was conventional). forcing when the passer has shown values (opened the bidding) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ant590 Posted January 26, 2010 Report Share Posted January 26, 2010 With one partner I play that if we convert a t/o double, or make a penalty double, passes are forcing unless (1) we bid, or (2) they jump Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted January 27, 2010 Report Share Posted January 27, 2010 How about an auction like this: 1S - (2C) - p - (p)Dbl - (p) - p - (Rdbl)p - (2D) - ?? Would you play pass as forcing here? If not, what does a double by responder show? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted January 27, 2010 Report Share Posted January 27, 2010 How about an auction like this: 1S - (2C) - p - (p)Dbl - (p) - p - (Rdbl)p - (2D) - ?? Would you play pass as forcing here? If not, what does a double by responder show? No this is not a forcing pass, double shows some diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted January 30, 2010 Report Share Posted January 30, 2010 I usually play that pass is non-forcing, unless one of the following applies: - The passer has already shown values - Either hand has already set up a forcing auction (e.g. by a redouble) - I play 1NT dbl 2m P as forcing (special case) The sample auctions shown in this thread are definitely not forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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