aguahombre Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 I have been trying to figure out how the percentages are derived on the distribution charts which have been widely accepted. I didn't realize how dumb I really was until: The chart shows that with an 8-card fit, the outstanding cards will divide 3/2 20 times out of 32. The chart gives the probability as .68. I always thought 20/32 was .625. the chart shows seven outstanding cards will divide 4/3 70 times out of 128 and states the probability to be .64. My calculator keeps giving me .546. What am I doing wrong? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 I think you are missreading the table, there are 20 different 3-2 combinations (distributing the 5 cards on a 3 and 2 card stack), and I don't know where you get the 32 from.There are 70 4/3 combinations. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 I have been trying to figure out how the percentages are derived on the distribution charts which have been widely accepted. I didn't realize how dumb I really was until: The chart shows that with an 8-card fit, the outstanding cards will divide 3/2 20 times out of 32. The chart gives the probability as .68. I always thought 20/32 was .625. the chart shows seven outstanding cards will divide 4/3 70 times out of 128 and states the probability to be .64. My calculator keeps giving me .546. What am I doing wrong? The probability for any given 32 split is greater than any given 4-1 split. Think of it in terms of number of open spaces which is somewhat similar. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 I think you are missreading the table, there are 20 different 3-2 combinations (distributing the 5 cards on a 3 and 2 card stack), and I don't know where you get the 32 from. There are 32 different ways that 5 cards can be distributed: 2 5-0 breaks (either opponent can hold the void), 10 4-1 breaks (there are 5 possible singletons, and it can be in either opponent's hand), and 20 3-2 breaks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 You can draw the same 3 cards in 3 different orders, so this triple has a population of 3. The question is, is 20 the number of different triples (thats what I think) or does it include the population of each triple. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bb79 Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 68% probability comes from the constraint that two hands have 13 cards each. Once you give 3 cards to one side you can give 10 of the remaining 21 cards to that side. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bb79 Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 The mathematical calculation, for those interested,8 card fit , 3-2 distribution of a suit C(5,3)*C(21,10)/C(26,13) + C(5,2)*C(21,11)/C(26,13)=0.678 C(n,k) is combination operator, choosing k cards from n cards, (n-k)!k!/n! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 As bb79 said - the fact the opps are constrained to 13 cards each means that the 32 five-card distributions and the 128 seven-card distributions are not equally likely. Working out the 5-card case all the way: Opps have (say) 5 spades and 21 non-spades. There are two 5-0 breaks, for each of which the non-spades can be dealt 21!/(8!13!) 203490 ways.There are ten 4-1 breaks, for which the non-spades can be dealt 21!/(9!12!) = 293930 ways.There are twenty 3-2 breaks, for which the non-spades can be dealt 21!/(10!11!) = 352716 ways. That is, the 3-2 breaks are more likely than the 4-1 breaks by a factor of 12:10, and the 4-1s more likely than the 5-0 breaks by a factor of 13:9 (so a 3-2 is more likely than a 5-0 by a factor of 12X13 : 9x10.) You can now calculate 20 / (20 + 10 / 1.2 + 2 / 1.733 ) ~ 20/29.487 ~ 67.8%. Similarly, in the 7-card case, the seventy 4-3 breaks are more likely than the 5-2 breaks by a factor of 11:9, the 5-2s more likely than the 6-1s by a factor of 12:8, and the 6-1s more likely than 7-0s by a factor of 13:7, and you can now calculate 70 / (70 + 42 / 1.222 + 14 / 1.833 + 2 / 3.405) ~ 70/122.588 ~ 62.2%. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dcohio Posted January 19, 2010 Report Share Posted January 19, 2010 I still say the probability of a 3-2 split is 50/50. It either is or it isn't... :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted January 20, 2010 Author Report Share Posted January 20, 2010 thank you bb, and sieg for the answers. Knew I would get some silliness, too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dcohio Posted January 20, 2010 Report Share Posted January 20, 2010 B) After all that math I had to inject some levity lol Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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