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rebid minor in 2/1?


bftboy

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P bids 1 and I hold something like Jx Q xxx AKQxxxx. My pref is to bid 2 GF, then when I rebid 3 over, say 2, the GF is cancelled. P can pass, bid 3nt, bid 3, raise 's, etc. obviously if P makes a strength-showing bid, the GF is still on.

 

I guess my question is, if you're NOT playing the agreement that rebid of one's minor cancels the GF, then how do you handle in-between hands like this in 2/1?

 

thx :P

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This is a clear GF with 7 almost certain running tricks and a helping Q in PD's suit.

 

I will comment that I much prefer the method where 2/1 is GF and is still GF if you repeat your suit, but there are two clear sides to this arguement.

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a lot of people play a jump to 3 as an invitational hand with a good 6 card club suit.

This. Although as already mentioned, your example hand is clearly a GF hand. 9 tricks for NT and you can probably supply 7 by yourself after partner opened? :P Advantage to rebidding still being a GF is when partner bids 2 now you can rebid 3 hoping to get partner to declare the 3NT.

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a lot of people play a jump to 3 as an invitational hand with a good 6 card club suit.

This. Although as already mentioned, your example hand is clearly a GF hand. 9 tricks for NT and you can probably supply 7 by yourself after partner opened? :P Advantage to rebidding still being a GF is when partner bids 2 now you can rebid 3 hoping to get partner to declare the 3NT.

A major advantage is that PD knows you are GF with a hand full of and hopefully if you belong in 5 (no stopper) or slam is making there's time to find out again noting GF.

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The actual hand is an easy game force anyway. But to answer your question, you do need two ways to show a single suited minor hand and less than a game force because the range is much too wide if you respond 1NT and rebid the minor on all of them.

 

I would definitely play 2/1 then rebid as GF and the hands where you want it as GF are actually quite common. A direct 3 or 3 response is one option but I prefer to use those for other things.

 

IMO you can manage just starting with 1NT as follows:

 

After a 1 opening it's a bit easier because you have 1NT then 2 available as an artificial bid. Probably most people play 1-1NT-2-2 as a diamond raise and better than 3 directly. But you could also include the stronger single suited club hands in 2 and opener bids 2NT to find out whether you have clubs or diamonds.

 

After a 1 opening and opener rebids 2 you can use Bart with a good diamond hand and just bid 3 with the weaker one.

 

After a 1 opening and opener rebids 2 you don't really have an answer so either agree to bid 2NT with good and 3 with bad, or to bid 3 with good and just have to pass or give preference otherwise.

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P bids 1 and I hold something like Jx Q xxx AKQxxxx.  My pref is to bid 2 GF, then when I rebid 3 over, say 2, the GF is cancelled.  P can pass, bid 3nt, bid 3, raise 's, etc.  obviously if P makes a strength-showing bid, the GF is still on. 

 

I guess my question is, if you're NOT playing the agreement  that rebid of one's minor cancels the GF, then how do you handle in-between hands like this in 2/1?

 

thx :ph34r:

with an invite hand in minor for the most part I would start with 1nt and rebid 2nt.

alternative is to play 1h=1nt=2d=3c as invite.

 

that makes all 2/1 100% g ame force.

 

 

chances are when you have a weak hand and a long minor the opp will be in the bidding and then you can just bid natural.

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I guess my question is, if you're NOT playing the agreement that rebid of one's minor cancels the GF, then how do you handle in-between hands like this in 2/1?

Some other way, obviously!

 

You can play a 3m response to 1M to show an invitational hand.

I play conventional continuations after 1M - 1NT which allow responder to show both strong and weak hands with a long minor (at the expense of not ever being able to play in 2C, and being forced to at least 2H if opener is balanced)

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My understanding of how Mike Lawrence suggested handling this problem was to consider the 2/1 game forcing unless opener's rebid suggested a misfit.

 

In other words, 1S-2D-2N-3D became game force as 2N showed at least 2 diamonds.

But 1S-2D-2H-3D was not forcing as opener could be on a diamond void.

 

Obviously, in the latter case you have to use 4th suit forcing if you have a good hand, but that is not that serious of problem.

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Hi,

 

To answer to your question in a more generic way:

 

Playing 2/1 you have basically 3 ways of bidding 3C, after p openes in a major

 

#1 via a jump shift

#2 via bidding 2C, followed by rebidding the suit

#3 via a forcing NT seq.,

1M - 1NT

2? - 3C

 

Now you have 3 ways to 2 show 3 hand strengths - weak, invitational, GF,

and it basically does not really matter, which way showes, which hand strength,

all 3 ways are possible, and get used.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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