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Your call?


cnszsun

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3, unless playing with someone who likes to rebid 2 on a 2533 that belongs to our notrump range. In which case I would try 2 as a passed hand and bid 2 as an unpassed hand.

 

With 46 I would respond 1NT, assuming that we don't play BART or Gazilli or anything.

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Hi,

 

Since you are a passed hand, you can bid 2D.

2D is still FSF, but since you did not open ...

 

The alternative is to pass.

 

The decision is depend how regular you expect partner to raise

1S to 2S, when he is holding 3 card support, if he "always" raises,

than there is a lot to be said for Passing, since you wont have a 5-3

fit in spades very often.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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I play a style where 2 is only forcing 1 round too.

 

And this hand looks like a passwtp to me at IMPs. MAYBE at MPs you could persuade me to fish for a spade contract, but I might be losing more in 2NT/3 than I am gaining in 2.

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wtp?

 

the p is that we could be on for slam and we're playing on the 2 level. seriously you don't see a problem with that?

 

Kx

AKxxx

x

KQxxx

 

there are millions of hands where we have game on... 2 is not limited to 13 hcp, contrary to popular belief. jumping to 3 or bidding 2NT is not acceptable on random 17 counts, contrary to popular belief.

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No, its not limited to 13 HCP; but I sure hope it's not routinely a 4-loser hand!

 

If you play sound openings I'll believe there is a 35 or 40% chance of a game in the hand somewhere, so I can see why the "vulnerable at IMPs gong" is sounding. My own style is to lighter openings (a majority of 11s) and sounder responses (5HCP about once in 3-5 sessions) than many... so I feel like I'm giving up more like a 25% chance of game along with a modest chance of 2S being a better partscore.

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