Reverse after a Pass from partner

[InTime]

Is a reverse after partner has passed 100% forcing?

For example:

1♣, (1♥), Pass, (Pass)

2♠, (Pass), ? Is this 100% forcing for partner?

or

1♦, (1♠), Pass, (Pass)

2♥, (Pass), ? Same question

or

1♣, (Pass), Pass, (1♠),

2♥, (Pass), ? Same question

 

If not . . . with what kind of values should partner show a little bit of life?

 

Regards

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

The reverses you described are not forcing, but of course opener is

showing a good hand.

First of all p is asked, which strain is the better, i.e. if he thinks,

the new suit offers the best chance, than he will pass, otherwise

he will correct back.

Partner will show some live, if the reverse revealed a (good) fit,

and if he has a max., e.g. due to a distributional feature, if you

need a number - 6points.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[Codo]

It depends a little on your style.

 

If you never ever open strong two suiters with one of a minor- then your next bid cannot be logically forcing.

 

If you do, then at least the jump in Nr. 1 is forcing.

To me your examples Nr.2 and Nr. 3 are nonforcing but I would always move with a fit and a ruffing value.

[gnasher]

Is a reverse after partner has passed 100% forcing?

No. All of your examples are non-forcing. There's a case for playing the second sequence as a weakish 5-6.

 

If not . . . with what kind of values should partner show a little bit of life?

Fit matters rather more than values, because opener is likely to be distributional as well as quite strong.

 

In your example sequences (assuming that they're all played as strong) responder should raise any time he has 4-card support for the major, regardless of strength. For jump preference to the minor, he doesn't need any more than 3-card support and one fitting top honour.

[helene_t]

In all three cases, opener would usually double with extra values and 5+4 in his two suits. So he either has no tolerance for the fourth suit, or he has a very offensive hand that doesn't want partner to pass with 5-6 cards in opps' suit. A 5-6 shape is possible and I think your first example should actually promise five spades. In the two other cases he could also be 4-6.

[mcphee]

I consider all of these moves to be F to 3 of the minor or 3 of the reversed or j/s bid. We can make the assumption partner saw our initial pass and that they expect us to TELL more about our hand which does not include passing. If they are not prepared to see a complete pail hit as dummy they should have done something else.

[Free]

We made a non forcing opening, partner didn't promisse anything, so no bid we make can be forcing in theory. There may be merrit in playing it as forcing in certain situations ofcourse

[Finch]

Sequences 2 and 3 are definitely not forcing.

The first is more interesting. I think it's still not forcing unless you don't have a forcing opening bid. But I wouldn't pass it as responder unless I had a really horrible 3=4=5=1 or so.

[CSGibson]

Follow-up question - if you do consider it forcing, or if you consider it non-forcing but you want to make a courtesy raise, do you play ingberman still?

[P_Marlowe]

Follow-up question - if you do consider it forcing, or if you consider it non-forcing but you want to make a courtesy raise, do you play ingberman still?

Good question, but since a raise would be nonforcing for us, I am not

sure Ingberman / Lebensohl makes a lot of sense.

But it wont hurt either, and it may well be helpful to have the chance to

distiguish a "good" raise of openers first suit from a "bad" raise /

preference.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe