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Precision 1D Relays


olien

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I am debating between which of the following structures to use:

 

version 1:

1 shows 10-15 HCP 2+, not balanced. Opening 1NT is 13-15 and 11-12's in 1st and 2nd seat are passed. In response it's fairly natural:

 

1M...Natural Forcing

1N...7-11- NF

2...GF Relay

2...Natural F1

2...5+ 4+ <INV

2...INV 6+

2NT...Natural INV

3...5/4+ minors, <INV

3...weak

 

a 2 opening shows 6+ and 2 opening is 3-suited short in , so 1 can be 4xx5 with 2+

 

version 2:

1 is the same as above, but balanced hands with 11-12 HCP and at least 1 4-card major are allowed. In response:

 

1...4+ F1 or no 4M <GF

1....4+ F1

1NT...GF Relay

2m...Natural NF

2...5+ 4+ <INV

2+ whatever

 

Reason a 4-card major must be promised if balanced is for the following auction:

1 -1// 1NT showing a balanced hand has to promise 4 or one would have to raise into what could be a potentially disastorous contract.

 

 

or Version 3, which I haven't really looked much into:

1...Natural or GF relay

1...Natural F1

1NT...Natural NF

2m...Natural (NF?)

2+ whatever

 

 

Some insight into why one thinks whichever way is better would be good and follow ups would be appreciated on version 3 if that is your choice.

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Complete confused why 1NT is defined as natural NF.

Opener appears to be promising an unbalanced hand...

Just when will opener pass 1NT? (some 4225 hand???)

 

I'd use 1 as a relay (doesn't necessarily promise values)

 

1 = Relay

1 = Natural, 4+ Hearts, forcing

1N = Natural, 4+ Spades Forcing

2 = Natural, NF

2 = Natural, NF

2 = 5+, 4 NF

2+ = whatever

 

After 1 - 1

 

1S = Diamonds and a major

1N = Clubs and a major

2 = Two suited with both minors

2 = 6+ Diamonds, single suited

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I am under the rules of the ACBL :P

 

So a relay must promise GF values to be playable in most situations. So for us to be able to use that, 1 would have to promise GF values. That's why we have 1NT as natural NF, it's basically a weak relay with no 4-card major.

 

More thoughts are welcome :)

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If you're determined to do something along these lines, here's what I'd suggest:

 

Option 1, but expand the 1NT opening range to 12-15. Invert the meanings of the 1NT and 2 responses so that 1NT is the game forcing relay and 2 is pass or correct. Seems like you have some flexibility in your further bidding, as you may not need a natural 1NT rebid. You could try playing Keri instead of Stayman after 1NT openings to better handle the wider range.

 

However, I don't think something like this will be superior to normal methods.

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I think playing 1 unbalanced-but-2+ is really underutilizing a very cheap opening. Either play it unbalanced 0+ (3-suited/diamonds/minors), or include the balanced hands too and play it 2+ (bal or natural 4+) and put the 4M-5 hands in 2..

 

Just my take on the NT responses... I like to limit my 1N response to "no game on power", so you don't go looking for magic 3N's and go down in 2N.

 

1-?

1N up to 10 (psych?)

2 natural or 11-12 balanced (F1)

2N 13-14, sound invite

3N as usual

 

Over the 2, 2 showed any minimum (9-11) and would be passed by the balanced hand. Other responses showed varying degrees of extras via relays, and forced to 2N/3m opposite the balanced hand and game otherwise.

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I am debating between which of the following structures to use:

 

version 1:

1 shows 10-15 HCP 2+, not balanced. Opening 1NT is 13-15 and 11-12's in 1st and 2nd seat are passed. In response it's fairly natural:

 

1M...Natural Forcing

1N...7-11- NF

2...GF Relay

2...Natural F1

2...5+ 4+ <INV

2...INV 6+

2NT...Natural INV

3...5/4+ minors, <INV

3...weak

 

a 2 opening shows 6+ and 2 opening is 3-suited short in , so 1 can be 4xx5 with 2+

 

version 2:

1 is the same as above, but balanced hands with 11-12 HCP and at least 1 4-card major are allowed. In response:

 

1...4+ F1 or no 4M <GF

1....4+ F1

1NT...GF Relay

2m...Natural NF

2...5+ 4+ <INV

2+ whatever

 

Reason a 4-card major must be promised if balanced is for the following auction:

1 -1// 1NT showing a balanced hand has to promise 4 or one would have to raise into what could be a potentially disastorous contract.

 

 

or Version 3, which I haven't really looked much into:

1...Natural or GF relay

1...Natural F1

1NT...Natural NF

2m...Natural (NF?)

2+ whatever

 

 

Some insight into why one thinks whichever way is better would be good and follow ups would be appreciated on version 3 if that is your choice.

Version 1:

I think it is better to open 54M22 with 1NT. Your 1 will then show 4+ most of the time (a 3crd is only possible with 1-4-3-5 or 4-1-3-5).

I also think it is better to use the 1NT response as the GF relay. Hands that fit the natural 1NT response can either bid clubs, support diamonds or pass.

 

Version 2/3:

I do not see how you will be able to sort everything out after the 1NT relay. If you want to include balanced hands in 1, I think you will have to use the 1 relay (version 3). This will surely complicate things. Loosing the natural 1 response is also a lot bigger loss than loosing the natural 1NT response.

 

Steven

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I would definitely use version 3 if it's allowed. Natural or GF relay gives up almost nothing. Opener can easily respond (and natural):

1 = 4 (here you can use XYZ or 2 as GF relay)

1NT = any bal or semibal without 4M (here again XYZ or 2 GF relay)

2 = both minors (here I advise you to play 2 or 2 forcing, 2 is pretty high)

2 = singlesuited (2 or 2 forcing)

2 = 4 (2 forcing)

 

If you play 1-2 as weak, you can make a 2 rebid forcing so your relays are better.

After 1-1-2 you obviously don't have much space to ask the entire hand, but it's possible to get a decent precision.

 

I've played a similar structure over a 1 opening which was any hand without 5M (so 0+, included hands where you'd open 2!) and it worked very well.

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