hrothgar Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 [hv=d=s&v=i&n=sj964h976d82cqjt4&s=s8hakq5dakjt5ca63]133|200|Scoring: IMPs[/hv] I was hoping that folks would recommend a good auction for these two hands playing 2/1 GF Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 1♦-pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted January 9, 2010 Author Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 Second question: Assume that the auction started 2♣ - 2♥ where 2♥ is a double negative. Is 3♦ forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
spotlight7 Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 Hi: 100% forcing. Regards, Robert Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 1H-2H-3C-4H. Treat 4xH:AKQx as 5xH. 3C asks C-stuff. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 Second question: Assume that the auction started 2♣ - 2♥ where 2♥ is a double negative. Is 3♦ forcing? Yes. First question:1♦ 1♠2♥ 2NT (leb)3NT P (gulp) Not a good contract. At least opener's hand is good enough that we have a shot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 One more vote here for 1♦-swish. (And there are people who play 2♣-2♥-3♦ as nonforcing. But if you're going to drop this hand in a partscore opposite a weak response, might as well drop it in one as in three...) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 I'd bid 1♦-Pass on these. I'm not sure what makes the north hand worth responding for Josh here -- I understand that responding light can win in some cases, but this hand is balanced, no ace or king, no five-card suit. If you're responding with this hand, when do you pass? And if you really pass this rarely, maybe you should play 1♦ as forcing, which could substantially help in some 2♣ auctions... If I did open 2♣ on the south hand, I'd expect to end in 3NT after a sequence like 2♣-2♥-3♦-3NT. Note that even if south rebids 2NT, north's 4-count is enough for game opposite 22-24 flat. Obviously 3NT is not the best contract to reach. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 Most likely 2/1 auction IMO is 1D-P. The follow up question about 2C-2H is the reason I think #1 most likely - there really is no good way to bid these hands in 2/1, regardless of the start. But to answer the question I think 3D should be non-forcing after 2C-2H-3D. Otherwise, what is the purpose of playing double negative 2H? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 1d=pass. 4 count, no 5+ major or nice dist feature with working hcp. no 3d is not 100% forcing after 2h......but partner should strain to bid on almost anything. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 I'd bid 1♦-Pass on these. I'm not sure what makes the north hand worth responding for Josh here -- I understand that responding light can win in some cases, but this hand is balanced, no ace or king, no five-card suit. Agree with this, and I want to add that I would respond with a yarb, but this hand has just enough so that I don't think we are stealing, but not enough so that I think game is likely at all to make. Also want to add that I think the south hand is about a queen away from opening 2C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 [hv=d=s&v=i&n=sj964h976d82cqjt4&s=s8hakq5dakjt5ca63]133|200|Scoring: IMPs[/hv] I was hoping that folks would recommend a good auction for these two hands playing 2/1 GF I am partial to 1♦ (P) P (P) but I will try to bid the unseen hands :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 That will teach me to be honest! Ok clearly this is the worst hand responder can possibly hold. It does not have a QJT. It does not have any 9s. In fact I must be looking at it wrong, it appears to be 4333. We can't have game. They can't have game. I just don't understand bridge. Is there any other revelation I missed? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 But to answer the question I think 3D should be non-forcing after 2C-2H-3D. Otherwise, what is the purpose of playing double negative 2H?I think that the main purpose of a double-negative 2♥ is to help with slam bidding. For example: - With a balanced 27-count, opener can happily stop in 3NT opposite a 2♥ response, but make a slam try opposite a 2♦ response. - In a crowded sequence like 2♣-2♦;3♦-3♠;4♠, responder can happily pass with moderate values, knowing that he's already shown them. - Playing 2♦ as a relay with no upper limit, it's useful to play a sequence like 2♣-2♦;2♥-3♥ as showing real slam interest. If you do that, but also play that 2♦ has no lower limit, the weaker ways of supporting hearts have an uncomfortably wide range. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted January 9, 2010 Report Share Posted January 9, 2010 I think if you start 1D 1S2H At this point responder has to pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted January 10, 2010 Report Share Posted January 10, 2010 Hi, A reasonable auction could go 1D - Pass. You have 21 HCPs, but you basically have a 2 (or even 3 suiter), and playing2/1 with only 2C as the only forcing bid, so ... If you open 2C, you basically commit your self to game, you will raise therelais 2D to 3D, and partner will bid 3S, followed by 3NT from opener. Sry, no better suggestion, just open 1D, and hope for the best. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 10, 2010 Report Share Posted January 10, 2010 I think that the main purpose of a double-negative 2♥ is to help with slam bidding. This depends almost entirely on the nature of your opening 2C bids. It is easy to produce big hands that fit this scenario, but if you always open 5431 21 counts 2C then stopping before getting too high becomes critical. There is a hole in standard-type bidding between 1-bids and really big hands and it has no good solution. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 10, 2010 Report Share Posted January 10, 2010 There is a hole in standard-type bidding between 1-bids and really big hands and it has no good solution. Opening the in between hands at the 1 level and responding light? Ok ok maybe I've said enough, the secret is already leaking out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted January 10, 2010 Report Share Posted January 10, 2010 There is a hole in standard-type bidding between 1-bids and really big hands and it has no good solution. Opening the in between hands at the 1 level and responding light? Ok ok maybe I've said enough, the secret is already leaking out.This is what we do, and we'd respond with a stiff diamond, but this actual hand is a complete coin toss whether we treat it as a 5 count and respond or not. Our auction would be either: 1♦-P or 1♦-1♠-2N(GF unbal)-3♣(semi forced)-3♥-3N This shows a better hand than 1♦-1♠-2♥ which is still a full reverse but you'd pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted January 10, 2010 Report Share Posted January 10, 2010 Second question: Assume that the auction started 2♣ - 2♥ where 2♥ is a double negative. Is 3♦ forcing? 1st question: 1♦-pass or 1♦ 1♠2♥ 2NT (meant as artificial weak, but I'm ok with it natural as well3♦ pass 2nd question: 2♣ 2♥?? Here's a suggestion: play transfers. I.e. 2♠ = balanced unlimited. Reponder bids as if 2NT had been opened (except the obvious 2NT rebid, which means "would have passed a 23-24 2NT opener") 2NT...3♥ = transfer to next suit. Responder now completes transfer meaning "continue at your own risk" (fit not guaranteed even!), else bids natural GF 3♠ = 5♠ + 4♥ GF 3NT = 55 majors GF Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted January 11, 2010 Report Share Posted January 11, 2010 1♦ 1♠2♥ 2NT (meant as artificial weak, but I'm ok with it natural as well3♦ pass Surely 3♦ here is non-forcing opposite normal responding values? That is, it's what you'd bid with a 4-6 16-count. With his actual hand, opener would raise 2NT to 3NT. I'm usually very reluctant to break partnership discipline, but I'm sure Justin's right about this: if you respond 1♠ you should pass 2♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted January 11, 2010 Report Share Posted January 11, 2010 Wow a hand gnasher will pass a forcing bid! I guess that's why gnasher would never bid 1S though :rolleyes: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 11, 2010 Report Share Posted January 11, 2010 I don't mind in principle passing forcing bids but I like to really be certain it's right. Maybe on this hand it is. I still want to respond to the opening, and still worry partner will be 3361 or that he will have a hand that makes game (T AKxx AKQxxx Kx, maybe some 5-6 hands) but I'm willing to compromise on passing 2♥ since it seems like it will usually be right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted January 11, 2010 Report Share Posted January 11, 2010 There is a hole in standard-type bidding between 1-bids and really big hands and it has no good solution. Opening the in between hands at the 1 level and responding light? Ok ok maybe I've said enough, the secret is already leaking out. Why not play a forcing club or forcing pass system then and save the room and get the benefit of limited 1-bids? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted January 11, 2010 Report Share Posted January 11, 2010 There is a hole in standard-type bidding between 1-bids and really big hands and it has no good solution. Opening the in between hands at the 1 level and responding light? Ok ok maybe I've said enough, the secret is already leaking out. Why not play a forcing club or forcing pass system then and save the room and get the benefit of limited 1-bids? I agree. See now we've got two good solutions (depending what you consider 'standard type bidding'), that'll teach you to say there are none. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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