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theoretical NT lead question


whereagles

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Hi all,

 

I would be interested in hear opinions on what would theoretically be the best lead in the following case:

 

You hold Qxxx in a major and Axxx in a minor. The bidding is:

 

1. Opps open 1 or 2NT and end up there.

2. Opps bid 1/2NT-3NT

3. Opps bid 1/2NT-2/3-x-3NT, where x = no 4 or 5 card major

 

What would you think is, in theory, a better lead in each sequence and why? Thx.

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The Qxxx in all cases, because it's more likely that the ace will provide an entry to the queen-suit than vice versa.

meh I think if it's 1N 3N Qxxx of a minor just sucks too much to be considered. If I had xxx in the other major I would lead that over Axxx though... otherwise I'd go with Axxx I guess (yuck)

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Always Qxxx of the major. Axxx is never a good lead, and should be avoided at all costs.

 

If I had Qxxx of a minor and Axxx of a major, I wold lead from Qxxx of the minor on 1N p p p.

BINGO! especially if the xxx in Axxx is actually 234. You are leading away from your most probable entry and before you do that you really need to hold spots that justify that kind of risk. AT98 vs Q432 is much more tempting.

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Qxx(x) always because Axx(x) is an awful lead at any rate (Aces are meant to take declarer's King/Queens, or provide entries). Qxxx is also often a poor lead.

 

I would prefer an xxxx, or xxx in a side suit though.

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thx all.

 

I actually lean towards the Axxx lead because there seem to be more cases were you can make a length trick, and besides the ace is a sure entry. The Qxxx is good if pard has KJ or JT, but may be kind of sucky otherwise. Better if a major, but still......

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