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Unusual 2N


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What does the last bid mean in each of these auctions? I was surprised there was so much variance in the answers I got.

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 3N

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4m

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4C P 4D

 

1S 2N P 4D

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4m P 4H

 

As a bonus, how would you bid these two hands after west opens 1S

 

void xx Jxxxx AT9xxx

QJx AKQx AKxxx Q

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What does the last bid mean in each of these auctions? I was surprised there was so much variance in the answers I got.

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 3N

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4m

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4C P 4D

 

1S 2N P 4D

 

1S 2N P 3S

P 4m P 4H

 

As a bonus, how would you bid these two hands after west opens 1S

 

void xx Jxxxx AT9xxx

QJx AKQx AKxxx Q

3S is game forcing. So:

1. Spade stopper (maybe not best, that's certainly what it is without discussion)

2. My better suit (4C with no preference)

3. Slam try in D

4. To play, but 2N-bidder is allowed to bid more with a good hand of course.

5. Cue for m

 

I am sure I failed the test so I do need the extra credit:

2N 3S 4C 4D

Now it depends, but especially vulnerable I would be tempted to just bid 5D with the North hand (bad suit), if I was sick enough to bid 2N. Not vulnerable I would cue 4S and South would keycard -> 7D.

So a 5 or 7 hand for me!

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(1) Since 3 is a cuebid, it is forcing and asks for further description (partner's better minor). I would take the 3NT rebid as describing no preference, asking advancer to choose the minor.

 

(2) The 4m response is the better minor.

 

(3) I would take 4 as first-round control of diamonds, agreeing clubs as trump.

 

(4) 4 is the better minor.

 

(5) I would take 4 as first-round control of hearts, agreeing clubs as trump.

 

Regards, Paul

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The two hands:

(1) 3 NVUL, 2 VUL. But I would not quarrel 2NT here.

(2) Double, followed by 2 after partner's expected 2. I don't think this hand is going anywhere unless partner answers 2 (or 3 if pard owns the remaining HCP with some distribution).

Regards, Paul

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1 - Spades stopped (and not significant extras).

2- Spades not stopped. 4 shows 6-5.

3 - We have a diamond fit. Forcing.

4 - Preemptive (wtf?)

5 - Never thought about it. I believe it should be a cuebid since 3 last round was forcing, and we couldn't have hearts and bid 3 looking for 3NT since partner can bid 3NT over 3 anyway.

 

I bid those two hands:

(1) 2NT - 3 -

4 - 4 -

4 - 4NT -

blah

 

Agree with Ken's post below. At least the first 8 words.

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I'm not sure what real people do here, but it seems to me that:

 

3 = general force

 

3NT by 2NT'er shows a spade card for 3NT. If he cannot bid 3NT, then he indicates his shortness (4 = heart shortness, 4 = diamond shortness).

 

If 2NT'er shows a stiff heart (4), then 4 agrees diamonds and anything else agrees clubs.

 

If 2NT'er shows a stiff spade (4), then 4 flags clubs (maybe as RKCB) and 4 flags diamonds; 4NT as choice.

 

A direct leap by advancer is natural, obstructing.

 

With the two hands:

 

(1)-2NT-P-3-

P-4(short spade)-P-4(diamond flag, slammish)-

P-4NT(something good)-P-5(cue, grand try)-

P-6(enough already)-all pass

 

Something like that.

 

General principles in play (my defaults):

 

1. Cue is forcing (duh)

2. A person who shows two known suits usually bids shortness as his third-suit call

3. Flags are used to identify fit in unknown fit scenario, if needed

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I don't think 3S is a GF, and think you should bid 3S when you have an invite in a minor (because 4m is mixed/preemptive/whatever).

 

As such I think 4C over 3S just shows a minimum, and 4D over that 4C bid is NF.

 

I don't see why we need 3S as a GF, sure it's better if we have slam but they've opened and the ranges are quite wide already and we have no invitational bid, so I'd much prefer to have more accurate game bidding in this situation.

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I don't think 3S is a GF, and think you should bid 3S when you have an invite in a minor (because 4m is mixed/preemptive/whatever).

 

As such I think 4C over 3S just shows a minimum, and 4D over that 4C bid is NF.

 

I don't see why we need 3S as a GF, sure it's better if we have slam but they've opened and the ranges are quite wide already and we have no invitational bid, so I'd much prefer to have more accurate game bidding in this situation.

So, when 3S is an invite with a minor, the follow-ups by the unusual NT hand are?

 

Assume 2NT is topped out at very weak o/c range or a mountain (dual range).

 

Frags would show max? 4NT mountain? 4d shows? these are questions in search of answers, no other agenda here.

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1) Yes I have a spade card (might only be half of a stopper tho.. Qx or maybe even just the Q which will protect your Kx or Jxx)

 

2) minimum/not good for game. agree that 4 shows a 6/5 hand

 

3) preference opposite a weaker response.

 

4) preemptive

 

5) cue bid with strong SI even opposite minimum (most likely wants a spade singleton out of the overcaller's hand).

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I don't think 3S is a GF, and think you should bid 3S when you have an invite in a minor (because 4m is mixed/preemptive/whatever).

 

As such I think 4C over 3S just shows a minimum, and 4D over that 4C bid is NF.

 

I don't see why we need 3S as a GF, sure it's better if we have slam but they've opened and the ranges are quite wide already and we have no invitational bid, so I'd much prefer to have more accurate game bidding in this situation.

I think that this works, but then you almost have to bump the bids up by one.

 

3NT = offer to play

4 = any minimum

4 = max short spade

4 = max short heart

 

Then, 4/4 as flags for the minors.

 

That works OK.

 

It just seems like stopping on a dime at four of a minor is so tight a goal, especially when the likely scenario is that the major pattern and the type of minor honor pattern will determine whether game makes or not, and there is little in the way of space to explore. That said, I could live with the structure as set forth above.

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What does the last bid mean in each of these auctions? I was surprised there was so much variance in the answers I got.

  •  
     
  • (1) 2N (_P) 3
    (_P) 3N = (half-)stopped
     
     
  • (1) 2N (_P) 3
    (_P) 4m = Better minor no extras.
     
     
  • (1) 2N (_P) 3
    (_P) 4 (_P) 4 = Preference highly invitational but NF.
     
     
  • (1) 2N (_P) 4 = Pre-emptive.
     
     
  • (1) 2N (_P) 3
    (_P) 4m (_P) 4 = sets (4 = sets )
     
     

As a bonus, how would you bid these two hands after west opens 1S
- xx Jxxxx AT9xxx (1) 2N 4 5

QJx AKQx AKxxx Q ---- 3 4 5

Not a good hand for these methods. Although with more discussion, 4N instead of 5 could mean something. :(
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I think that this works, but then you almost have to bump the bids up by one.

 

3NT = offer to play

4 = any minimum

4 = max short spade

4 = max short heart

 

Then, 4/4 as flags for the minors.

"Almost have to"? I can't remember ever bidding, or even considering, a slam after this start, so I don't think slam bidding should be high on your list of priorities.

 

Whilst this scheme may help us on the once-in-a-lifetime slam hand, it will much more often help the opponents by helping them with the lead if it's just a game or partscore hand.

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I think that this works, but then you almost have to bump the bids up by one.

 

3NT = offer to play

4 = any minimum

4 = max short spade

4 = max short heart

 

Then, 4/4 as flags for the minors.

"Almost have to"? I can't remember ever bidding, or even considering, a slam after this start, so I don't think slam bidding should be high on your list of priorities.

 

Whilst this scheme may help us on the once-in-a-lifetime slam hand, it will much more often help the opponents by helping them with the lead if it's just a game or partscore hand.

When's the last time you heard 3 in this sequence? The fact that it is rare is not that compelling a reason. The reason I would find it compelling is that the difference between game and slam for minors is so low. One card of pattern likely makes the difference.

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