Flame Posted July 9, 2004 Report Share Posted July 9, 2004 I dont understand those who bid 4sp, even if 2sp is GF, partner has 4 spades (even this is in doubt) so why bid 4sp on a 4-3 fit ? does 2sp must be a hand which want to play on a 4-3 rather then 3nt ? i think not, I can understand 3sp and passing a 3nt from partner. I understand the principle of fast arival, but this is only when you know the which kind (NT or which suit) you want to be in, if you dont then you can still check for it, and this doesnt necassarly show a stronger hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted July 9, 2004 Report Share Posted July 9, 2004 Im for 2N, not so much because it slows down the auction (this is a Ingberman/Lebensohl sequence), but because I can let partner pattern out with a 4531, 4513 or 46??. If pard is 4531, this hand may play awkward with the tap in the long hand, and we might be better in 5♦. If pard has dub-dub in the minors, then 3N will be best. Phil Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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