rogerclee Posted December 24, 2009 Report Share Posted December 24, 2009 r/r imps 9xxx Axx Ax Axxx P P 1C 1NX 2D P 2HP P ? 2D = xfer Theoretically I think doubling 2D should just say you had a real opener, but you weren't playing that. Also your opps don't play 2-suited runouts or anything. edit: fixed everything Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nick_s Posted December 24, 2009 Report Share Posted December 24, 2009 Something's not right here....Edit: Fixed now, thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted December 24, 2009 Report Share Posted December 24, 2009 Something's not right here.You overcalled 1N with a 4=3=3=4 12 count? You opened 1C. He says 2D is a transfer, so obviously he just added in a pass after the double. I think it is: p p 1C 1N X 2D p 2Hp p ? I still don't know what the shape is as the hand has 14 cards though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted December 25, 2009 Report Share Posted December 25, 2009 We have a good opening hand given that strenght is behind, if partner wasn't unpassed hand I would bid 2♠ for sure. Partner being a passed hand makes pass a strong alternative, probably the best one. Now sure how good 3 aces is with the strenght behind, it wouldn't surprise me if random 10 counts from partner with 4 spades made 10 tricks 70% of the time. But I am just passing Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted December 25, 2009 Report Share Posted December 25, 2009 Pass seems auto to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted December 25, 2009 Report Share Posted December 25, 2009 Pass seems auto to me. yeah, its not like we're missing a game so why give them one if they make. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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