DWM Posted November 29, 2009 Report Share Posted November 29, 2009 [hv=d=s&n=s43h94daj976cq965&s=sq6hak63dkq832ca4]133|200|[/hv] How do you bit this hand playing a strong club with 1D reply = 0-7 points. If the bid is available West will bid 1/2S in the second round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted November 29, 2009 Report Share Posted November 29, 2009 A few options here. 1) When I played strong club seriously I had the agreement not to open 1D with primary diamonds unless I had a GF in my own hand. Therefore this sequence seems plausible. 1D (1S) 3D3H 3S4D P/5D depending on what mood responder is in. 2) If I have to open this 1C, then: 1C (1S) X2D 3D3H 3S4D P/5D depending .... I do feel I'm going to be in 5D off 1 a fairly high percentage of the time here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DWM Posted November 29, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 29, 2009 West passed the 1C bid and only came in on the second round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted November 29, 2009 Report Share Posted November 29, 2009 If you open this hand 1♣ you better describe it as balanced. 1NT gives more room to p than 2♦. 1♣-1♦1NT-(2♠)-3♦3♠-4♣5♦ 3♦is invitational (a weak hand either passes or bid 2NT lebensohl). 3♠ asks for help in that suit. I think it doesn't show half a stopper here but of course it would be great if it did. Alternatively S could bid 3♥. That might show a 5-card to some, though, if you routinely rebid 1NT with a 5-card major. I don't think I would normally do that, though. So 3♥ is fine too, then responder could ask for half a stop with 3♠. 4♣ is natural, although S would generally pass without a diamond fit, clubs could still play better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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