kgr Posted November 22, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 22, 2009 Tx..4S-4NT-5H-6D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 I must be missing something but looks like jlall and kgr both agreed that responder was planning to invite opposite the 12-14 advertised but when he heard that the 12-14 hand is a good max, he is gonna try for slam? I remember kenrexford being loled at for suggesting that 1NT-2c, 2d-2N opener's 3♦ was a slam try (maybe I don't remember right?). edit: http://cuebiddingatbridge.blogspot.com/200...o-splinter.html Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 Why is it better to lie about my spade length than to lie about my club length? Because it's lower, i.e. I can still reach 1NT if partner bids it. But it's not like I'm happy to do it, everything stinks IMO. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 I must be missing something but looks like jlall and kgr both agreed that responder was planning to invite opposite the 12-14 advertised but when he heard that the 12-14 hand is a good max, he is gonna try for slam? I remember kenrexford being loled at for suggesting that 1NT-2c, 2d-2N opener's 3♦ was a slam try (maybe I don't remember right?). edit: http://cuebiddingatbridge.blogspot.com/200...o-splinter.html I would never invite with this hand opposite a 12-14 NT, but that doesn't mean I would game force with it immediately over a 1C opener. Sometimes partner opens 1C and has less points and more shape and the hand is a misfit. It is entirely reasonable that some hands are not worth a GF after a 1C opener, but then when they learn they have a good fit they become worth a slam try even when partner shows minimal HCP The auction that I remember LOLing at kenrexford about was: 1N 2C2H 3H4D Where 4D is an empathetic splinter. That is a much different auction because it is the balanced hand making a slam try opposite an invite, where the person who invited has already evaluated his hand as invitational in context of having a fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 Put another way its like 1C p ? WELLL I have 11, can't really GF it yet... 1D 1N p ? Partner doesn't have 4S or 3H. He always has 3 diamonds, and could have 4. Additionally he has 12-14 now, so I know he didn't open light based on a black 2 suiter or club 1 suiter with like 10 HCP. Now I'm going to GF. I'm not really sure what the best game is though... 2N showing D 3C p ? Wow! Partner likes his hand for diamonds! He likely has 4 diamonds, which is amazing in combination with a doubleton heart when I am 4-6. But he might still just have 3 diamonds, and he might have slow black cards :)... 3H, see whats up 3S p ? Wow! Partner didn't want to bid 3N. He is interested in playing 5D so his hand is not slow, he's probably got a prime hand with only 1 stopper in clubs, or maybe he just has nothing in clubs in all. My hand just keeps getting better and better. Axx xx Kxxx Axxx is a slam, that is consistent with partner's bidding. Should I drive to slam? Nah, better not, partner might have bid 3S based on no club control with say, AKx Qx KQx xxxxx. I will try for slam with 4S pinpointing my lack of club control. As a bonus, because of my failure to GF to begin with, partner can NEVER play me for more than I have. In fact he might well work out my entire hand!... 4S Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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