bluejak Posted November 21, 2009 Report Share Posted November 21, 2009 Comments many years ago from one of my two friends, Jens Brix Christiansen or Jesper Dybdal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
duschek Posted November 21, 2009 Report Share Posted November 21, 2009 Comments many years ago from one of my two friends, Jens Brix Christiansen or Jesper Dybdal.OK. Jens is directing tomorrow at the Danish League matches anyway, so I might discuss the matter with him. However, first I must complete a match, followed by TWO appeals cases that my team is involved in. I might present the cases here when the smoke has cleared, so that our readers here can get some practice :angry: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 22, 2009 Report Share Posted November 22, 2009 We rule according to Laws and Regulations. In that case, you should be able to tell us which law or regulation makes South's removal of his bidding cards a pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
duschek Posted November 23, 2009 Report Share Posted November 23, 2009 Jens is directing tomorrow at the Danish League matches anyway, so I might discuss the matter with him.No luck. Jens did not recall exactly what was discussed. However, he felt fairly sure that we never had a regulation which stated how removing the bidding cards should be interpreted. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bali 2 Posted November 25, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 25, 2009 WBF. COC 2009 ( ¤ 24 . Bidding boxes ) : " If a player whose pass auction removes his bidding cards from the table, he is deemed to have passed."For example : N opens 1NT, East 2♥, South 3NT, W pass, N pass, and when East removes his 2♥ card he is deemed to have passed.So, apparently, we are not here in the same situation, and we may be inclined to say that as the North player has not called over 2♣, the auction is not closed, and East has not the option to remove his card "Pass" ( from the first round ) to close the auction.So we go back to the tha auction, North's turn to call : N do not see the 2♣ card and do not bid ( he removes his 1NT card ) , East removes his "Pass" card, concluding the auction, and now we have 3 Pass over the 2♣ bid. We still arrive at the same result : 2♣ is the final contract. If the TD allows the auction to be reopened and gives North the opportunity to call again, he is canceling the mistake and favoring N/S side against E/W, and also ruling on contrary to the law 17( or may be 22 ...) :P Al. Ohana Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bali 2 Posted November 25, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 25, 2009 " If a player whose pass will conclude the auction removes..." Sorry, I wished to write it in red, but do not succeded ... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted November 25, 2009 Report Share Posted November 25, 2009 According to this North never passed did he? (His pass would in case not have concluded the auction.) Now what about East's turn to call? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 25, 2009 Report Share Posted November 25, 2009 Screens...A call placed and released may be changed under the Director's supervision:...:rolleyes: If it is determined by the Director to be a call inadvertently selected Even if we accept the absurd argument that North has passed, the pass was plainly selected inadvertently, and can therefore be changed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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