Hanoi5 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 You get: ♠Kx♥KQxx♦Jxx♣Kxxx Your partner opens 1♠ after the dealer passes, what's your bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 12+12 is GF... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mohitz Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 All day long! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikegill Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 I'm sure that at MPs or white IMPs I would just bid 1N. At red IMPs, I'm not sure I could bring myself to only invite game, but I would certainly want to. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Hmmm, flat, bad spots ... for me depends on partner's style. If he typically opens bad 11 counts, I will bid 1NT then invite. He will probably think of a decent 13 as a max and accept. And if he has that 11 count, we end up right where we belong. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 All day long. If partner has a hand with just 11, he will have no crap, so we may still have play in game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 All day long. If partner has a hand with just 11, he will have no crap, so we may still have play in game. Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 No reason to GF, IMO. Suppose I bid 1NT, forcing. If partner rebids 2NT or higher, no problem. If partner rebids 2♠ or 2♥, I could decide to GF now. If partner bids 2♦ or 2♣, I could choose to bid 3NT. But, if partner passes 1NT, he decided right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 25 Zars, no known fit. I would not 2/1 GF with this one with my normal partners who tend to open light. I would make a 2/1 with my mother who will have a solid opener if she opens, and with other partners who do the same. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Slightly depends on partner's style of openings. Generally I wouldn't GF as this hand is aceless with a stray jack. If my hand was Kxx KQxx Jx Kxxx then I would as we have a known fit. I'll start off with 1NT and I'm still allowed to re-evaluate depending on partner's rebid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 All day long. If partner has a hand with just 11, he will have no crap, so we may still have play in game. Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ... The partner with the crap rebids 2♠ over 2♣ and passes your 2NT call Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Agree with Ken. Help! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Not 2C but 2D. Next 2N >2S looks just right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Disagree with Ken. 1NT followed by 3NT should be reserved for hands that upgrade due to opener's rebid, or are too quacky to give p the impression of hiving the slam potential that usually goes with GF hands. This depends on partner's opening style, I suppose with an unknown p I would GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 No reason to GF, IMO. Suppose I bid 1NT, forcing. If partner rebids 2NT or higher, no problem. If partner rebids 2♠ or 2♥, I could decide to GF now. If partner bids 2♦ or 2♣, I could choose to bid 3NT. But, if partner passes 1NT, he decided right.The OP suggested that 2/1 is gf...that method ALWAYS (to my knowledge) means that 1N is F1. Therefore opener will never pass 1N unless he has psyched. Having said that, I agree with Gnasher's post (all of it) Helene: arguing that 1N 3N should be reserved for hands that have upgraded is not, imo, accurate. Another reason for 1N then 3N is to warn partner, who may be looking at a hand just under jumpshift values, NOT to get excited, as he surely would were we to gf immediately. Thus I (and others) will sometimes respond 1N or make a limit bergen raise on hands where we, as responder, are always intending to bid game but don't want partner to become too aggressive on good hands. These hands are usually very 'soft', as is the one under consideration. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 I think it is very common to play 2/1 gameforcing and 1NT not forcing. I also agree with the onenotrumpers, though less comfortably so red at IMPs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
miguelm Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Everything Mikeh wrote :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 1NT!!! I saw it started off nearly unanimous for a game force and nearly puked in my mouth. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 All day long. If partner has a hand with just 11, he will have no crap, so we may still have play in game. Exactly! If you have that partner, bid 2♣. But if you have the partner that frequently does have crap ... The partner with the crap rebids 2♠ over 2♣ and passes your 2NT call Well if 2♣ is game forcing that's not really an option ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 1NT!!! I saw it started off nearly unanimous for a game force and nearly puked in my mouth. Josh you should know by now being an underbidder on the forums is a fate worse than death. Underbidders must where a scarlet "U" on their foreheads. Mine is permanently stained. 1N is very easy. In many continuations I will GF this. In others I will simply invite. When is a balanced, aceless 12 ever a game force? When the "an opening bid facing an opening bid produces game" theorem was introduced, people were passing these hands. ...puked in my mouth Prilosec helps with this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 1NT!!! I saw it started off nearly unanimous for a game force and nearly puked in my mouth. Yes. I don't understand why people like this hand so much. Mikeh, I totally play 1NT semi-forcing. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 When is a balanced, aceless 12 ever a game force? Quite often? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 When is a balanced, aceless 12 ever a game force? Quite often? works for me especially when partner opens a 15-17 NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 Or when you have 3-card support, or when you have good spots, or when you have a good 5-card suit, or when... But not with this hand, no. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted November 19, 2009 Report Share Posted November 19, 2009 1NT forcing followed by 2NT over 2 of a minor. Bid 4♥ over 2♥. Over 2♠ it is sort of a 3 1/2♠ bid. I haven't quite decided whether I want to bid a spade game over a 2♠ rebid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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