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[hv=d=e&v=n&s=skqjhktdakqjcakqx]133|100|Scoring: IMP

2C-2D*

 

*Agreement is that 2H is a bust, so 2D shows something[/hv]

 

Dealt this hand today at MPs with a pickup partner. But let's imagine it's IMPs so we want to push harder for slam.

 

Is there a good way to explore a slam, or do you just have to decide whether or not to take the leap half-blind?

 

Complete auction and dummy were:

 

2C-2D

3N-AP

 

xxx

Axxxxx

xx

xx

 

Making 7 after I take the JC lead, opps hold up twice on QJ of spades, discard their club stopper while I'm running diamonds, and LHO is squeezed with AS and 3 hearts.

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I assume that we are not playing Kokish (which makes this easier).

 

If 2 "shows something," then is 2NT forcing? I don't understand the 3NT call. I mean, if 2NT is not forcing, then I suppose I'll either make up a call like 3 or something or I'll make some sort of big jump in notrump, like 4NT or 5NT. Probably 5NT.

 

That said, why is partner passing 3NT with six hearts? What, 2NT is not forcing but 3NT is gambling?!?!?

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It's not clear to me that you really missed something here. Say opponents take the spade ace at first opportunity. Now you have only 2+2+4+3 is eleven tricks. Your only shot at twelve is a heart-club squeeze, which is somewhat against the odds (requires the long hearts and long clubs in the same hand). Of course, if opponents lead hearts and then lead hearts again when they win the spade ace you are cut off from dummy and have no play at all (admittedly a heart lead is not that likely). Basically you took a lot of tricks because opponents misdefended....

 

In any case, I like bidding 2NT over 2 here, then taking another call after partner's signoff. Since you play 2 double-negative, it's not like partner is passing 2NT. Probably you would see 2-2(1)-2NT-4(2)-4NT(3)-5(4)-5(5)-5(6)-Pass

 

(1) Game force

(2) Transfer to hearts

(3) Keycard; extras

(4) One

(5) Queen ask

(6) No queen

 

Of course, things are more awkward if you play 0314 and less awkward if you play kickback, but whatever.

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What do bids other than 2 or 2 show? Does responder have a way to show a positive in and if so, what does that promise? This hand isn't a positive in , but it is important to know what inferences opener can make over the failure to bid a positive in .

 

Also. after

2 2 (assuming this means we are GF)

2NT

what is the difference between 4 (transfer to ), and 3 (transfer to ) followed by 4 (bearing in mind that in both cases, responder has denied a positive in )?

 

With all these distinctions available, it ought to be possible for opener to know by the time the bidding reaches 4 that slam isn't very good here.

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