Jump to content

Do you want to be in this slam?


Recommended Posts

Do you want to be in 6 here or not? (Opponents silent.)

 

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=s97hat2dj76ckt943&s=sak4h3dak432ca652]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

In the hidden part, I try to figure the odds:

 

 

Slam makes if:

Clubs are 2-2

Clubs are 3-1, AND I can hold the minors to 1 loser. My foresight isn't all that good, but I might need hearts to be 6-3 or better as well, right?

 

Ok clubs 2-2 is 41%

3-1 clubs, losing a diamond only. I need LHO to hold Hxx in clubs. A singleton honour happens in half of all 3-1s, and half the time south has the singleton. So 25% of 50%, or 12.5%

3-1 clubs, loing only a club. Now south has Hxx (12.5%), and the queen of diamonds is single or double

Q single is 1/5th of all 4-1 splits (.2x.28 = 5.6%)

Q double is 2/5s of all 3-2 splits (.4x.68 = 27.2%)

So 3-1 clubs for 1 club loser is 12.5% x (5.6% + 27.2%) = 4.1%

 

So my chances of making are: 41% + 12.5% + 4.1% = 57.6% more or less

 

 

I want to be in this slam, don't I?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Do you want to be in 6 here or not? (Opponents silent.)

 

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=s97hat2dj76ckt943&s=sak4h3dak432ca652]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

In the hidden part, I try to figure the odds:

 

 

Slam makes if:

Clubs are 2-2

Clubs are 3-1, AND I can hold the minors to 1 loser. My foresight isn't all that good, but I might need hearts to be 6-3 or better as well, right?

 

Ok clubs 2-2 is 41%

3-1 clubs, losing a diamond only. I need LHO to hold Hxx in clubs. A singleton honour happens in half of all 3-1s, and half the time south has the singleton. So 25% of 50%, or 12.5%

3-1 clubs, loing only a club. Now south has Hxx (12.5%), and the queen of diamonds is single or double

Q single is 1/5th of all 4-1 splits (.2x.28 = 5.6%)

Q double is 2/5s of all 3-2 splits (.4x.68 = 27.2%)

So 3-1 clubs for 1 club loser is 12.5% x (5.6% + 27.2%) = 4.1%

 

So my chances of making are: 41% + 12.5% + 4.1% = 57.6% more or less

 

 

I want to be in this slam, don't I?

Well not sure of the odds but the chance for a 2-2, restricted choice possibilities in , and Q or Qx of should be enough

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I definitely want to be in slam. Picking up clubs is almost 50%, and not losing a diamond is something like 15%, and I only need either one if the other suit isn't awful. I wouldn't feel the need to get much more accurate to know I want to be in slam.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Picking up diamonds is a lot better than 15% Josh. Hx with 5 out is 27-28% plus you get 3% or so for the singleton Q's.

 

I make this ~:

 

((47%) for clubs for no losers) +

((53% x (33% x 95%)) for clubs with one loser (you can't pick up QJxx in left) = 16%)

 

= 63%.

 

This assumes you attempt A checking for an honor, and hooking (RC).

 

You could endplay an opponent out of the Q by eliminating the major suit cards and throwing him in. That would require an opponent to hold exactly 3=3=4=3 or 5/3 - which is not at all likely since it means an opponent stayed silent with 11 or 12 major suit cards.

 

Adding more pedantry - you could also play for a remote squeeze in +

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I definitely want to be in slam. Picking up clubs is almost 50%, and not losing a diamond is something like 15%, and I only need either one if the other suit isn't awful. I wouldn't feel the need to get much more accurate to know I want to be in slam.

I would, however, like to know about restricted choice when playing this slam!

Link to comment
Share on other sites

((47%) for clubs for no losers) +

((53% x (33% x 95%)) for clubs with one loser (you can't pick up QJxx in left) = 16%)

 

Shouldn't is be 90%, not 95%? Both 4-0s do you in.

 

Also, 47% is 41% for 2-2, plus 6% for singleton queen? Doesn't singleton jack work out the same? So 41% + 12 = 53% for clubs with no losers?

 

(That said, my original math didn't take into account that all 3-1s can be played for 1 loser.)

 

So 53% + (47% x 33% * 90%) = 67%?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

((47%) for clubs for no losers) +

((53% x (33% x 95%)) for clubs with one loser (you can't pick up QJxx in left) = 16%)

 

Shouldn't is be 90%, not 95%? Both 4-0s do you in.

 

Also, 47% is 41% for 2-2, plus 6% for singleton queen? Doesn't singleton jack work out the same? So 41% + 12 = 53% for clubs with no losers?

 

(That said, my original math didn't take into account that all 3-1s can be played for 1 loser.)

 

So 53% + (47% x 33% * 90%) = 67%?

No you can pick up QJxx on left. Remember you aren't trying to endplay him, only pick up the diamonds.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Also, 47% is 41% for 2-2, plus 6% for singleton queen? Doesn't singleton jack work out the same? So 41% + 12 = 53% for clubs with no losers?

No :)

 

You lose to the QJ dub offside, so one of the 2-2's gets tossed out.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Also, 47% is 41% for 2-2, plus 6% for singleton queen?  Doesn't singleton jack work out the same?  So 41% + 12 = 53% for clubs with no losers?

No :)

 

You lose to the QJ dub offside, so one of the 2-2's gets tossed out.

Right. /facepalm. I figured it would be something like that.

 

Thanks

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...