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gwnn

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2/1, forcing NT.

 

Somebody told me about this:

 

1-1NT

2m-3

 

and

 

1-3

 

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

 

Somebody else told me that

 

1-1N

2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void) for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?

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2/1, forcing NT.

 

Somebody told me about this:

 

1-1NT

2m-3

 

and

 

1-3

 

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

 

Somebody else told me that

 

1-1N

2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void) for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?

I believe this one is almost exactly like the problem kfay posted last week ( or so ).

[ I can't seem to find it now ] .

I believe it went:

1H - 1NT ( not known if forcing or not )

2D - 4Cjump

 

Some thought it was a splinter for Diam... but would have to be a hand such as

3 2 7 1 ...

 

Others opted for a fit-jump... a hand like:

2 1 4 6....but this was rejected because the poster said 1H - 3C would describe such a hand....

 

Moster were "perplexed" , including me... and I asked kfay to tell us what was described at the table... no reply

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It is well known that 1-1NT (forcing) - 2m - 2 is an artificial strong raise of opener's minor suit.

 

How to accomplish the same thing after 1-1NT (forcing) - 2m is far more troublesome. Since responder can actually have a heart suit without the values to make a 2/1, 2 is not available for this purpose.

 

I would reserve 3 for a strong raise of the minor suit rather than a hand with hearts alone. Whether it should show hearts (a fit jump) or be totally artificial is up to the player.

 

If one held a good enough hand with just hearts to justify a 3 bid over 2m, then the hand was probably good enough to bid 2 over 1.

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Others opted for a fit-jump... a hand like:

2 1 4 6....but this was rejected because the poster said 1H - 3C would describe such a hand....

I don't believe it was rejected. The clubs may not be good enough for 3 last round, or he could fit jump with 2155, 2164, 1255, 1246, 1264, or shapes like 2173 as well.

 

In this thread usually if you bid 1NT first you have 2-6 simply as a way to differentiate and not play in a worse fit. But I like the jumps below 3NT as fit jumps promising at least 5-4 and being non-forcing.

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FWIW, I think there is pot5entially a wild difference between:

 

1-1NT-2-3 and

1-1NT-2-3

 

That is, if you play BART.

 

Playing BART, on the first you could bid 2 and then 3 no matter what Opener does (just about) or bid 3 directly. These should, IMO, be different.

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2/1, forcing NT.

 

Somebody told me about this:

 

1-1NT

2m-3

 

and

 

1-3

 

both show 6 good hearts and about 10 points but one of them promises exactly 2 spades and the other one shows 0-1 spades. What do you think of this? Which one should be which? I was thinking perhaps over 1S-1N 2S it might make sense to just jump to 4H directly with 2-6 in the majors (possible overbid)?

 

Somebody else told me that

 

1-1N

2m-3 should be a cuebid (A, K, singleton or void)  for the minor. I don't think that's a very good idea but maybe a fit jump for the minor could be better? If it is a FJ should it be 5-4, 5-5, 4-5, 4-6, ?

Hopefully this is on point.

 

many play:

 

 

1s=1nt

2c=BART so:

 

 

3h=6+h and invitational values.

 

---

 

I would just guess that:

1s=1nt

2d=3h=same...

 

 

 

----

 

 

 

I play 1s=3h as unspecified suit (stiff or void) splinter......3s asks, 3nt relay says unspecified void, etc:

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You could play 1N then 3H as:

 

1) Fit showing

2) Invitational with a weak suit

3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think

a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or

:blink: was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

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Given that you don't have spade support, what shape are you implying by bidding 3 splinter?

 

2-1-5-5

2-1-6-4

1-1-6-5

1-1-5-6

 

Seems kind of unlikely to me.

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Given that you don't have spade support, what shape are you implying by bidding 3 splinter?

 

2-1-5-5

2-1-6-4

1-1-6-5

1-1-5-6

 

Seems kind of unlikely to me.

Why do you not have spade support?

 

Can't you be in theory making a splinter with spade support?

 

How about 3-1-5-4 or 3-1-4-5, with a limit raise valuation?

 

I'm not saying here that this is the right way to play, but...

 

Qxx x Qxxxx Axxx opposite

AKxxx xxx AKxx x?

 

In 6, with normal splits, we take five diamonds, one club, and three spades on power, for 9 tricks. If spades split no worse that 4-1, that's trick #10. If diamondssplit no worse than 3-1, that's trick #11. So, we need diamonds or spades to cooperate better, or a spade Jack, or a working spade 10, of something.

 

Not a bad diamond slam.

 

6? Not so good.

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You could play 1N then 3H as:

 

1) Fit showing

2) Invitational with a weak suit

3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think

a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or

B) was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Sounds good to me! :unsure:

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You could play 1N then 3H as:

 

1) Fit showing

2) Invitational with a weak suit

3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think

a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or

B) was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Am I not allowed to ask whether Phil thinks Justin forgot this meaning, or he thinks Justin thinks it's a bad meaning?

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You could play 1N then 3H as:

 

1) Fit showing

2) Invitational with a weak suit

3) Invitational with a doubleton spade

OR 4) Splinter

Do you think

a) Justin forgot to list this meaning, or

:ph34r: was implying that he think it is a bad agreement?

Are we only allowed to suggest things that Justin thinks are a good idea?

Am I not allowed to ask whether Phil thinks Justin forgot this meaning, or he thinks Justin thinks it's a bad meaning?

No Phil was just listing a way 3 is played, since Justin's list was not complete.

 

He does not play this way, nor hasn't for quite a long time.

 

Others do play this method and their last name is not necessarily Rexford.

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