pran Posted November 12, 2009 Report Share Posted November 12, 2009 After having recocered from my flu and done some more thinking I wonder if I may accidentally have hit the explanation to end this discussion: Each revoke is inspected separately with the revoking side being the offending side for that particular revoke. There shall not be any L64A rectification, but if the non-offending side was damaged by the revoke then the final result shall be adjusted as if this particular revoke had not occurred. The effect of this is that if each offending side gained on their own revoke then the final result will be assigned as if no revoke at all had taken place. However, if an offending side actually damaged its own side by its own revoke then no adjustment is made (for either side) because of this revoke. My mistake so far has been that I failed to consider the possibility of a revoking side actually damaging itself with the revoke. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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