H_KARLUK Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 I think doubletonguing means 'A peculiar action of the tongue by flute players in articulating staccato notes; also, the rapid repetition of notes in cornet playing.' Ok how about this one, maybe close eh? [hv=d=n&v=e&s=shat5dqjt9cj97653]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv] Really, what method/s you use in an uncontested auction after your partner starts with 2NT(20-22bal)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
olliebol Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 puppet stayman followed by a minor suit ask except when the answer on the 3cl asking shows a 5 crd sp then i just bid 3no. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 3♠ minor suit stayman. Definitely 4♠ showing shortness over that if partner bids a minor. If he bids 3NT instead it's tougher, I would bid 4♣ since I have a sixth club and a void. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 3♠ MSS. I'll pass 3N since my cards are secondary in spite of my 0346. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ONEferBRID Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 Since I think it's not much more than a guess, I'm going to use a modification of the method suggested in the May, 2006 ACBL Bulletin for minor suits, slammish.But I do have to guess whether to show long Cl, or both minors w/Sp shortness: 2NT - 3S! ( relays to 3NT )3NT! -?? ( options below) 4C = Long diamond slam try; Opener replies as keycard. 4D* = Long clubs slam try; Opener replies as keycard . 4H = both minors, short in hearts; Opener replies as 6 Ace key card. 4S** = both minors, short in spades; Opener replies as 6 Ace key card. 4NT = balanced slam invitational hand with 4-4 in the minors.______________________________________________________Note: 4-of-the-other minor is used to "right side" the contract. If you selected 4D* and Opener replies at least 4 key cards ( 4♠ = 2nd step = 1 or 4), then bid 5NT! asking partner to bid 6C ( to right side the contract ). If you selected 4S** and Opener shows at least 4 ( of 6 ) key cards, then bid 5NT! asking to bid 6 of his longer minor. Edit: In the former case, if partner showed 3 key cards, you bid 4NT for pass or correct.With the "both minor" case ( partner showing 3 key cards ) you might be committed to 6-minor or possibly wrong siding the contract with 5C ( for pass or correct to 5D... since no room for a 4NT bid by Responder ). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ArtK78 Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 I play 4 suit transfers over 2NT openings. If you want to bid 3NT, you have to use Stayman first. So, on this hand, 3♠ (transfer to clubs) followed by 4♦ seems right. However, if partner "preaccepts" with 4♣, I can cue bid 4♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 We play 2N-3♠-3N-4♥ as both minors, slam interest, at least 5-4 with longer clubs. We could do something more sophisticated if we were prepared to play 2N-3N as anything other than natural, but sometimes it's just better not to play something you might forget. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 No way am I driving this hand to slam. If my only two options are driving to slam (unless we're off a cashing AK) and signing off in 3NT, I'll surely just sign off in 3NT. I can't comment much on the follow-ups since I don't know what system we're playing. The way I played was 3♠ forced 3NT and then 4♠ showed 5+♦ 4♣ and slam interest. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 I would bid 3♠ Minor Suit Stayman. If partner has a minor I will just bid slam. I would not show spade shortness here as slam is likely to make even with spade wastage and I would prefer a spade lead to a heart. If partner bids 3NT over 3♠ I will try 4♣ as slam is still a good chance. If partner is really unsuitable he can still sign off in 4NT and I hope he doesn't make exactly nine tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Jlall Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 Everyone now plays 3S MSS as opposed to relay to 3N to then bid something, interesting B) Anyways MSS is clearly better than relay to 3N on this hand type. If playing a common north american expert treatment like 3S forces 3N then you can slam try in a minor or show both minors and shortness in a major, I would choose to show both minors with spade shortness. It will be easier to get back into clubs when it's right than getting back into diamonds will be if I start by showing a 1 suiter in clubs. If I did play MSS and partner bid 3N I would definitely bid 4C next. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
H_KARLUK Posted November 2, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 [hv=d=n&v=e&n=skqjhk74da743cak8&s=shat5dqjt9cj97653]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 2, 2009 Report Share Posted November 2, 2009 3s mss and then natural 4c over 3nt sounds ok. :) nice pard responds 4d and not 3nt :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Deevan Posted November 3, 2009 Report Share Posted November 3, 2009 It appears that there are at least 3 issues in terms of how this hand will fit with the opener's hand:1) Does your partner open 2NT with a 5 Card M (KQxxx!). Now, how do we explore a Major fit? or a minor fit? or settle for 3N with something like 4=4=3=2?2) What is opener's spade holding? Lost values e.g. KQJ as shown in one comment?3) Opener's high cards in the minor suits?In practice, I would probably bid 3S MSS or relay to 3NT then show longer Clubs; I do play all these variations with different partners. I am not sure what is the best approach!Sometime back I was looking at this type of problem and came across an interesting post http://www.doublesqueeze.com/2008/08/2nt-3...-dangerous.htmlIt would appear that if you use this approach, treat the club suit as 5 card, you may be able to show 3 hearts and 5/4 or 4/5 in the minors.Any thoughts?As an aside, I like the idea of "I forgot the convention again"!! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kfay Posted November 3, 2009 Report Share Posted November 3, 2009 Sorry, I thought this thread was about something else. Thanks for clarifying. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted November 4, 2009 Report Share Posted November 4, 2009 Sorry, I thought this thread was about something else. Thanks for clarifying. Sounds like something I did in Bangkok. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
H_KARLUK Posted November 4, 2009 Author Report Share Posted November 4, 2009 It appears that there are at least 3 issues in terms of how this hand will fit with the opener's hand:1) Does your partner open 2NT with a 5 Card M (KQxxx!). Now, how do we explore a Major fit? or a minor fit? or settle for 3N with something like 4=4=3=2?2) What is opener's spade holding? Lost values e.g. KQJ as shown in one comment?3) Opener's high cards in the minor suits?In practice, I would probably bid 3S MSS or relay to 3NT then show longer Clubs; I do play all these variations with different partners. I am not sure what is the best approach!Sometime back I was looking at this type of problem and came across an interesting post http://www.doublesqueeze.com/2008/08/2nt-3...-dangerous.htmlIt would appear that if you use this approach, treat the club suit as 5 card, you may be able to show 3 hearts and 5/4 or 4/5 in the minors.Any thoughts?As an aside, I like the idea of "I forgot the convention again"!!Hello B) FWIW, we get used to play these when i was living in Turkey. Uncontested Opener Responder1♥ >1♠ (artificial relay, cannot be 5 times, doesn't even promise 4 cards, just like forcing notrump response)Opener's 1NT rebid (describes 11-15 hcp; 5♥+4♠Flannery deal) Opener Responder1♥ >1NT (exactly 5+ spades)NFOpener's rebids2♣ may be 3+ limit2♦ (2.5.4.2 or 1.5.4.3)limit2♥ 1.6 or 2.6 etc2♠ last resort by opener2NT (16-18) 2 ♦ Multi1- weak 2 M2- 4441 w 15+3-any 5332 19-21 hcp Some partnerships changed 3rd option: direct 2NT describes any 5332, so uncontested 2♦>2♥ (pass or pull) 2NT rebid of opener(any 4.3.3.3/4.4.3.2 w 19-21hcp) 2♣ 22+ any > classic 2♦ waiting bid Maybe this gives an idea in response to your question of item 1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MattieShoe Posted November 4, 2009 Report Share Posted November 4, 2009 Sorry, I thought this thread was about something else. Thanks for clarifying. Sounds like something I did in Bangkok. HAHAHA I'm glad somebody else said it. :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bende Posted November 4, 2009 Report Share Posted November 4, 2009 Dealer: North Vul: E/W Scoring: MP ♠ [space] ♥ AT5 ♦ QJT9 ♣ J97653 Really, what method/s you use in an uncontested auction after your partner starts with 2NT(20-22bal)?I bid 4♣ = 5+♣-4+♦, gameforcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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