Hanoi5 Posted October 29, 2009 Report Share Posted October 29, 2009 [hv=d=w&v=b&n=sqxxxhq9xxdt8xckx&w=skxxhatxxdxxcaqxx&e=sjxxhxdqxxcjtxxxx&s=sat9hkj8xdakj9xcx]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding went:1♣ Pa 3♣ XXX Pa Pa 3♦All Pass The redouble was alerted as showing a good hand, North's pass showed acceptance to play in any of the other suits. After the play was over West said his XX showed acceptance to play in 3♣XX not a good hand. He claimed it was the same anyway. What would you rule? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted October 29, 2009 Report Share Posted October 29, 2009 If I'd been NS I'd want to know what "a good hand" means to East. But given the information here, and assuming no other pertinent information comes to light, I'd say that if there is disagreement as to the meaning of the redouble, then the explanation "a good hand" is MI (we don't have enough information to be sure that explanation does not reflect their agreement, but given the information we have, the law tells us to rule MI). Beyond that, I can't say, as there are not enough facts in evidence. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluejak Posted October 29, 2009 Report Share Posted October 29, 2009 There seems to be MI. Without the MI, N/S will get to game some of the time. So I give them a percentage of game making. How much? Probably not too much since I believe this game is eminently missable on the auction even with a correct explanation. I also tell West to behave: it is not the same explanation, and I do not like West saying it is. Where is this? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted October 29, 2009 Author Report Share Posted October 29, 2009 Where is this? Why? You want to move? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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